IELTS Listening Practice Test 02 from wiki-study.com

IELTS listening practice test 02

SECTION 1 Questions 1-10 

Questions 1-8

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Five-Star Caterers

Customer Booking Form

 
Example

Event:

party
Customer name: Mr 1 ____________________________
Daytime telephone number: 2 ____________________________
Telephone number after 5 pm: As above (If no one answers,

3 ____________________________)

Number of guests: 4
Date: 5____________________________
Seating  
Shape: 6____________________________
Size: 7____________________________
Number of tables: 8____________________________

Questions 9 and 10

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

9    The man decides to book 

A. a three-course meal

B. a buffet.

C. a banquet.

10    The man will have to pay 

A. £750 tomorrow.

B. £100 per head.

C. £1,500 on the day of the party.

SECTION 2 Questions 11 – 20

Questions 11 – 17

According to the speaker, when did the following happen?

Write the correct letter A, B or C, next to Questions 11-17.

A before 1837

B between 1837 and 1900 

C after 1900

11    The East Front was added to the building.____________________

12    The last big structural change was made.____________________

13    The building was bombed.____________________

14    The building became a palace.____________________

15    The building was known as The Queens House.____________________

16    The Houses of Parliament were destroyed by fire.____________________

17    The Marble Arch was moved.____________________

Questions 18-20

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

18    Up to_______________people    attend garden parties at the palace each year.

19 The garden contains more than_____________species of wild flower.

20    The public can visit the nineteen______________in    August or September.

SECTION 3 Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21 – 24

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

21. What aspect of history is it important to learn something from?

_____________________________________________________________

22. What do we also need to know about our ancestors?

_____________________________________________________________

23. Where are transferable skills useful?

_____________________________________________________________

24. What kind of approach to learning does social science use?

_____________________________________________________________

Questions 25-30

What is said about each of these subjects studied on a social studies course?

Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to Questions 25-30.

A. This will focus on how each generation learns about its own culture.

B. This necessarily includes a study of physics and chemistry.

C. This is studied from the point of view of human behaviour.

D. This will only be covered in terms of its theory.

E. This also covers the distribution of wealth.

F. This includes the study of archaeology.

G. This has received criticism for not being scientific enough.

H. This includes some work on urban planning.

25    Anthropology _____________________

26    Economics _____________________

27    Education_____________________

28    Geography_____________________

29    Law_____________________

30    Sociology and social work_____________________

SECTION 4 Questions 31 -40 

Questions 31-37

Choose the correct letter. A, B or C.

31    Students should complete their work on the 1950s

A. if they want to be allowed to continue attending lectures.

B. because they will appreciate the information about the 1960s more.

C. otherwise they face the possibility of being failed for their coursework.

32    According to the lecturer, the ‘baby boom’ happened 

A. because of relaxed attitudes in the sixties.

B. during a time of war.

C. because people felt more secure.

33    In the sixties, the USA had 70 million 

A. teenagers.

B. babies.

C. adults.

34    According to the lecturer, compared to the 1950s, the 1960s were 

A. less conservative.

B. more conservative.

C. just as conservative.

35    According to the lecturer, literature changed the way women 

A. over 40 were treated by society.

B. viewed issues of race in society.

C felt about their roles in society.

36    The rate of crime in the sixties 

A. rose nine per cent during the decade.

B. was nine times higher than in the fifties.

C. was nine times lower than in the fifties.

37    What happened at the start of the 1960s?

A. the first heart transplant 

B. the introduction of the internet 

C. the invention of lasers

Questions 38 – 40

Complete the summary letter

Write no more than two words for each answer.

In October 1962, US President Kennedy met advisers to discuss 38_____________which    proved that the Cubans were installing nuclear missiles, presumably to use against the US. Kennedy was faced with three choices: to try to resolve the crisis diplomatically; to block the delivery of further weapons into Cuba; or to attack Cuba. Kennedy chose 39__________option,    which prevented the build-up of more missiles and led to the withdrawal of the existing ones. Most are agreed that a 40_______________was narrowly avoided by Kennedy’s decision.

Answer Keys & Explanation Here:

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IELTS Reading Practice Test 03 from wiki-study.com

IELTS Listening Practice Test 03 from wiki-study.com

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

Bovid

A bovid is any member of almost 140 species of ungulates belonging to the family Bovidae. The bovids are the largest family of hoofed mammals and are native to Africa, Europe, Asia, and North America. Members include antelope, bison, buffalo, cattle, sheep and goats. Bovids have mutually beneficial symbiotic relationships with bacteria and other microorganisms that allow the digestion of cellulose, the most abundant form of living terrestrial biomass, but one that is indigestible for many animals, including humans.

Bovids are not so common in endemic insular faunas and are mainly recorded in Southeast Asia, Japan and some Mediterranean islands. Ely the late Miocene, the bovids rapidly diversified, leading to the creation of 70 new genera. This late Miocene radiation was partly because most bovids became adapted to more open, grassland habitats. Some species of bovid are solitary, but others live in large groups with complex social structures.

All bovids have the similar basic form—a snout with a blunt end, one or more pairs of horns immediately after the oval or pointed ears, a distinct neck and and a tail varying in length and bushiness among the species. However, the bovids show great variation in size: the gaur can weigh as much as 1,000kg and stands 2-3m high at the shoulder. The royal antelope, at the opposite extreme, is only 25cm tall and weighs at most 3kg.

Despite differences in size and appearance, bovids are united by the possession of certain common features. Being ruminants, the stomach is composed of four chambers: the rumen (80%), the omasum, the reticulum, and the abomasum. Bovids retain undigested food in their stomachs to be regurgitated and chewed again as necessary Bovids are almost exclusively herbivorous. Most bovids bear 30 to 32 teeth. While the upper incisors are absent, the upper canines are either reduced or absent. Instead of the upper incisors,bovids have a thick and tough layer of tissue, called the dental pad, which provides a surface to grip grasses and foliage. All bovids have four toes on each foot—they walk on the central two (the hooves), while the outer two (the dewclaws) are much smaller and rarely touch the ground. Bovid horns vary in shape and size: the relatively simple horns of a large Indian buffalo may measure around 4m from tip to tip along the outer curve, while the various gazelles have horns with a variety of elegant curves.

Bovids are the largest of 10 extant families within Artiodactyla, consisting of more than 140 extant and 300 extinct species. Fossil evidence suggests five distinct subfamilies: Bovinae (bison, buffalos, cattle, and relatives). Antelope (addax, oryxes, roan antelopes and relatives), Caprinae (chamois, goats, sheep, and relatives), Cephalophinae (duikers), and Antilocapridae (pronghorn). Unlike most other bovids, Bovinae species are ail non-territorial. As the ancestors of the various species of domestic cattle, banteng, gaur, yak and water buffalo are generally rare and endangered in the wild, while another ancestor, auroch, has been extinct in the wild for nearly 300 years.

Antelope is not a cladistic or taxonomically defined group. The term is used to describe all members of the family Bovidae that do not fall under the category of , cattle, or goats. Not surprisingly for animals with long, slender yet powerful legs, many antelopes have long strides and can run fast. There are two main sub-groups of antelope: Hippotraginae, which includes the oryx and the addax, and Antilopinae, which generally contains slighter and more graceful animals such as gazelle and the springbok. The antelope is found in a wide range of habitats, typically woodland, forest, savannah, grassland plains, and marshes. Several species of antelope have adapted to living in the mountains and rocky outcrops and a couple of species of antelope are even semi-aquatic and these antelope live in swamps, for instance, the sitatunga has long, splayed hooves that enable it to walk freely and rapidly on swampy ground.

Subfamily Caprinae consists of mostly medium-sized bovids. Its members are commonly referred to as the sheep and the goat, together with various relatives such as the goral and the tahr. The group did not reach its greatest diversity until the recent ice ages, when many of its members became specialised for marginal, often extreme, environments: mountains, deserts, and the subarctic region. Barbary and bighorn sheep have been found in arid deserts, while Rocky Mountain sheep survive high up in mountains and musk oxen in arctic tundra.

The duiker, belonging to Cephalophinae sub-family is a small to medium-sized species, brown in colour, and native to sub-Saharan Africa. Duikers are primarily browsers rather than grazers, eating leaves, shoots, seeds, fruit buds and bark. Some duikers consume insects and carrion (dead animal carcasses) from time to time and even manage to capture rodents or small birds.

The pronghorn is the only living member of the sub-family Antilocapridae in North America. Each “horn” of the pronghorn is composed of a slender, laterally flattened blade of bone that grows from the frontal bones of the skull, forming a permanent core. Unlike the horns of the family Bovidae, the horn sheaths of the pronghorn are branched, each sheath possessing a forward-pointing tine (hence the name pronghorn). The pronghorn is the fastest land mammal in the Western Hemisphere, being built for maximum predator evasion through running. Additionally, pronghorn hooves have two long, cushioned, pointed toes which help absorb shock when running at high speeds.

Questions 1 -3

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

1 Bovids mostly inhabit

A. Africa.

B. Eurasia.

C. Southeast Asia.

D. South America.

2 What are the most favorable locations for the existence of bovids?

A. tropical forests

B. wetlands

C. mountains

D. open grassy areas

3 What is the common feature of idle bovid species?

A. Their horns are short.

B. They store food in the body.

C. They have upper incisors.

D. Their hooves are undivided.

Questions 4 – 8

Look at the following characteristics (Questions and the list of sub-families below.

Match each characteristics with the correct ;

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 4-8 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

4. can survive in harsh habitats.

5. move at a high speed.

6. origins of modern ox and cow.

7. does not defend a particular area of land.

8. sometimes take small animals as their food supply.

A. Bovinae

B. Antelope

C. Caprinae

D. Cephalophinae

Questions 9-13

Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9. What is the smallest species of Bovids?

10. Which member of Bovinae has died out?

11. What helps sitatunga move quickly on swampy lands?

12. Where can Barbary sheep survive?

13. What is the only survivor of Antilocapridae?

 

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

The contribution of language to business

People say that business is all about relationships, but the truth is that business is really all about language communication. Languages make either a direct or indirect contribution to business and industry—from acquiring and retaining customers to improving employee engagement and performance. At the most fundamental level, business cannot happen without communication. This is even more true in the era of globalization. As geographic borders become porous and the world flattens, effective communication with customers, employees, partners, suppliers, and other stakeholders across the globe becomes essential to successfully running a company.

There is no universal agreement on how significant the language factor is; nor the degree of language proficiency in contribution to the success of business and industry. In large modern enterprises, people have the unique experience of working with thousands of organizations across different industries and sectors that are tackling this very problem. Companies adjust to these demographic, cultural, and economic trends and proactively build workforces with the skills and capabilities needed to grow and thrive in this multicultural and international economy. Although the combination of business functions and processes impacted by improved communication may vary from company to company, language skills consistently deliver tangible business value and results for organizations that invest in language training.

Although English is dominant for international transactions, many business people also think and deal in scores of languages. Companies that operate solely in English will miss opportunities to capitalize on the explosive growth in developing and untapped markets at home and abroad. These companies also run the risk of misunderstandings with customers, and with members of an increasingly global workforce. Moreover, travellers on business need to have different levels of language proficiency. On a basic level, they are able to use the language at the airport and to check in at the hotel. Besides, they need a high language proficiency to deal with workers at their offshore factories.

One of the biggest business advantages of a workforce that can effectively communicate in more than one language is the ability to reach new markets—both at home and abroad. On the domestic side, for example, the U.S. has become even more of a melting pot than in the past, with minorities accounting for a greater proportion of the total population. Accordingly, in domestic venues, the consumer contacts and service activities also ask for workers with good skills of different languages, such as at restaurants or in duty-free stores.

The language proficiency needed to hold a conversation is quite different from that needed for negotiating. Receptionists and telephonists are the first point of contact between firms. The language proficiency they need is to gather basic factual information. Yet negotiating well in another language is one of the most difficult skills, especially nowadays when it is often done at a distance by videoconference, teleconference or email. It is also one of the most important things to do well, with usually a clear financial penalty for doing it badly. To really master the negotiating skill, negotiators need a thorough understanding of the very many phrases they might hear during a negotiation and an ability to show fine shades in meaning in their own contributions. Similar to negotiating, certain occupations like shipping, also require unbroken and detailed communication between officials.

When it comes to negotiation, the interpreters and translators are needed. Interpreters and translators aid communication by converting messages or text from one language into another language. Although some people do both, interpreting and translating are different professions: interpreters work with spoken communication, and translators work with written communication. The selection of interpreters and translators is critical. Both the loyalty and accuracy of the interpreters and translators must be put at the top of agenda. Thus, loyalty to the speaker and the original appears to be a hallmark of professionals more so than of amateurs.

Who can judge the performance of the interpreters? A person with language proficiency is needed in the negotiating team to check on the interpreters, guaranteeing the quality and accuracy of the interpretation. Listeners are presumably listening only to the output and as such not aware of the structure of the source speech. Only an experienced expert will understand the constraints of any given situation and be in a position to judge. Only she (or he) can assess just how the speed, density and complexity of the speech will affect interpretation in any particular language combination. And even this task is not easy: interpreters are trained to listen and speak at the same time, not to listen to two different audio streams. Therefore, the check-on is best accomplished by those trained to teach or with enough experience to have mastered this skill.

Businesses may ask help from local consultants who are responsible for hiring local workers or train company managers to deal with local consumers. That was the case with CommScope, a multibillion dollar telecom equipment manufacturer with customers, employees, and partners in 18 countries across the world. In the wake of these transactions, the company began offering Jacqueline K. Crofton, a local resident, language training to key employees and executives. The goal of the training was not to make employees fluent in the new language, as much as to give them a degree of functional proficiency. “In order to advance well in new markets and with new customers, we had to be able to at least understand and communicate at a basic level, even with the use of interpreters,” says David Hartsoe, manager of CommScope’s Global Learning Center. In the long run, effective communication will definitely help their employees stay positive and productive.

Questions 14 – 19

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say that the writer thinks about this

14. There are two types of contribution that languages make to business.

15. All businesses have recognized the importance of language to business.

16. English is the most important language for all business purposes.

17. Senior executives, especially, need to be fluent in the language of their trading partners.

18. Travellers on business need several different levels of language proficiency.

19. Some businesses provide interpreter training to their employees.

Questions 20-23

Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 20—23 on your answer sheet.

20. What level of language proficiency are the workers required in the duty-free stores?

21. Who are the first people the client usually have contact with in business?

22. Which industry is high language proficiency essential to?

23. What business are interpreters and translators needed for?

Questions 24 – 26

Choose the correct letter; A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

24 One of the most important qualities of the interpreter is

A. common sense.

B. industry knowledge and contacts.

C. appropriate reaction.

D. trustworthiness.

25 A qualified interpreter is essential to the business for

A. ensuring cultural appropriateness.

B. accuracy of information.

C. success in trading.

D. financial reasons.

26 In the writer’s opinion, hiring an indigenous person to improve the dialect language proficiency of the company staff is

A. unethical.

B. unlikely.

C. sensible.

D. expensive.

 

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

Agricultural and tourism

A. Agricultural tourism is a worldwide trend which offers city dwellers a chance to escape urban concrete and re-discover their rural roots. In addition, visiting farmers, agronomists and other agricultural experts can evaluate worldwide developments in agriculture, which have been greatly influenced by modern technology. Agriculture and tourism—two of Wisconsin’s most important industries—are teaming up in southwestern Wisconsin. A pilot project has found that tourists, rural communities, and some farmers could benefit from stronger efforts to promote and market agricultural tourism there. More than one-half of those surveyed responded favourably to a proposed tour, saying they would be interested in participating in some types of agricultural tour in southwestern Wisconsin.

B. In 1990, agricultural tourism project members surveyed 290 visitors to the annual Monroe Cheese Festival and 164 visitors to the Picnic on the Farm, a one-time event held in Platteville in conjunction with the Chicago Bears summer training camp. Survey respondents reported that they would prefer to visit cheese factories, sausage processing plants, dairy farms, and historical farm sites, as well as enjoy an oldfashioned picnic dinner. The study also found strong interest in visiting specialty farms (strawberries, cranberries, poultry, etc.). More than 7 5 percent of the Cheese Day visitors planned ahead for the trip, with 3 7 percent planning at least two months in advance. More than 40 percent of the visitors came to Monroe for two- or three-day visits. Many stopped at other communities on their way to Cheese Days. Visitors at both events indicated that they were there to enjoy themselves and were willing to spend money on food and arts and crafts. They also wanted the opportunity to experience the “country” while there.

C. The study found that planning around existing events should take into account what brought visitors to the area and provide additional attractions that will appeal to them. For example, visitors to Cheese Days said they were on a holiday and appeared to be more open to various tour proposals. Picnic visitors came specifically to see the Chicago Bears practice. They showed less interest in a proposed agricultural tour than Cheese Day visitors, but more interest in a picnic dinner. (The table below results from the 1990 survey of Monroe Cheese Days and Picnic on the Farm visitors and shows how the visitors would rank various activities in the proposed tour.)

Interest in specific activities in proposed tour

Activity

Cheese Days (Rank)

Picnic (Ran ‘

Cheese Factory Visit

1 2

Sausage Processing Visit

2 2

Dairy Farm Visit

3 5

Picnic Dinner

3 1

Historical Farm Visit

3 3

Crop Farm Visit

4 6

 

D. Agricultural tourism can serve to educate urban tourists about the problems and challenges facing farmers, says Andy Lewis, Grant county community development agent. While agriculture is vital to Wisconsin, more and more urban folk are becoming isolated from the industry. In fact, Lewis notes, farmers are just as interested in the educational aspects of agricultural tours as they are in any financial returns. “Farmers feel that urban consumers are out of touch with farming,” Lewis says. “If tourists can be educated on issues that concern farmers, those visits could lead to policies more favourable to agriculture.” Animal rights and the environment are examples of two issues that concern both urban consumers and farmers. Farm tours could help consumers get the farmer’s perspective on these issues, Lewis notes.

E. Several Wisconsin farms already offer some types of learning experience for tourists. However, most agricultural tourism enterprises currently market their businesses independently, leading to a lack of a concerted effort to promote agricultural tourism as an industry. Lewis is conducting the study with Jean Murphy, assistant community development agent. Other participants include UW-Platteville Agricultural Economist Bob Acton, the Center for Integrated Agricultural Systems, UWExtension Recreation Resources Center, the Wisconsin Rural Development Center, and Hidden Valleys, a Southwestern Wisconsin regional tourism organization.

F. This past fall, Murphy organized several workshops with some Green and Grant County farmers, local business leaders, and motor coach tour operators to discuss how best to organize and put on farm tours. Committees were formed to look at the following: tour site evaluations, inventory of the area’s resources, tour marketing, and familiarization of tours. The fourth committee is organizing tours for people such as tour bus guides and local reporters to help better educate them about agricultural tourism. Green County farmers already have experience hosting visitors during the annual Monroe Cheese Days. Green county Tourism Director Larry Lindgren says these farmers are set to go ahead with more formal agricultural tours next year. The tours will combine a farm visit with a visit to a local cheese factory and a picnic lunch.

G. Another farm interested in hosting an organized tour is Sinsinawa, a 200-acre Grant County farm devoted to sustainable agriculture and run by the Dominican Sisters. Education plays a major role at the farm, which has an orchard, dairy and beef cows, and hogs. Farm tours could be combined with other activities in the area such as trips to the Mississippi River and/or visits to historical towns or landmarks, Lewis says. The project will help expose farmers to the tourism industry and farm vacations as a way to possibly supplement incomes, he adds. While farm families probably wouldn’t make a lot of money through farm tours, they would be compensated for their time, says Lewis. Farmers could earn additional income through the sale of farm products, crafts, and recreational activities.

Questions 27 – 30

Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A—G in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27 Nearly half of all the surveyed tourists would spend several days in Monroe.

28 Most visitors responded positively to a survey project on farm tours.

29 Cooperation across organisations in research for agriculture tours has been carried out.

30 Agriculture tours help tourists understand more about zoological and ecological issues.

Questions 31-35

Which of the following statements belongs to the visitor categories in the box?

Please choose A, B or C for each statement.

Write the correct letter A, B or C, in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once

A. Cheese Festival visitors

B. Picnic visitors

C. Both of them

31. have a focused destination.

32. majority prepare well before going beforehand.

33. were comparably less keen on picnic meals.

34. show interest in activities such as visiting factories and fruit farms.

35. are willing to accept a variety of tour recommendations.

Questions 36 – 40

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage 3, using the list of words, A-K, below.

Write the correct letter, A-K, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

Through farm tours, visitors can better understand significant issues such as 36……………….. and the environment. In autumn, Murphy organized 37………………..and brought other participants together to develop the local tour market. Larry Lindgren said that the farmers already had experience of organising farm tours that also included a visit to the factory and a 38…………………Sinsinawa, a large farm, which is managed and operated by 39……………….., contains an orchard, cows, etc. Lewis said the project would probably bring extra 40………………..for local farmers.

A. urban consumers

B. workshops

C. community development

D. income

E. animal rights

F. picnic

G. Dominican Sisters

H. historical towns

I. Andy Lewis

J. vacations

K. dairy

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IELTS Reading Practice Test 02 from wiki-study.com

IELTS Listening Practice Test 02 from wiki-study.com

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1~13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

Bondi Beach

Bondi Beach is one of Australia’s most well-known beaches and among the world’s most famous. Bondi Beach is located in a suburb of Sydney, 7 kilometres east of the Sydney central business district. Bondi is said to be a corruption of an Aboriginal word boondi meaning water breaking over rocks. It has been spelt a number of different ways over time, e.g. Boondi, Bundi, Elundye. The Australian Museum records that Bondi means a place where a flight of nullas took place. The current spelling was accepted in 1827.

Aboriginal people occupied many sites in the area now known as Waverley in the period before European settlement. There v/ere numerous recorded sightings during the early colonial period and there are significant aboriginal rock carvings, including rough carvings of fish or fishes on the cliffs. The indigenous people of the area, at the time of European settlement, have generally been referred to as the Sydney people or the Eora, which means “the people”. There is no clear evidence for the name or names of the particular band or bands of the Eora that roamed what is now the Waverley area. A number of place names within Waverley, most famously Bondi, have been based on words derived from Aboriginal languages of the Sydney region.

Formal European settlement goes back to 1809, when the early road builder, William Roberts received a grant of 81 hectares from Governor Bligh, of what is now most of the business and residential area of Bondi Beach. In 1851, Edward Smith Hall and Francis O’Brien purchased 200 acres of the Bondi area that embraced almost the whole frontage of Bondi Beach. Between 1855 and 1877 O’Brien purchased Hall’s share of the land, renamed the land the “O’Brien Estate”, and made the beach and the surrounding land available to the public as a picnic ground and amusement resort. As the beach became increasingly popular, O’Brien threatened to stop public beach access. However, the Municipal Council believed that the Government needed to intervene to make the beach a public reserve. However it was not until June 9, 1882, that the NSW Government acted and Bondi Beach became a public beach.

In the early 1800s swimming at Sydney’s beaches was a controversial pastime. In 1803, Governor Philip King forbade convicts from bathing in Sydney Harbour because of “the dangers of sharks and stingrays, and for reasons of decorum”. But by the 1830s sea bathing was becoming a popular activity, despite being officially banned between 9:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m.. During the 1900s these restrictive attitudes began to relax and the beach became associated with health, leisure and democracy. Bondi Beach was a working class suburb throughout most of the twentieth century with migrant people comprising the majority of the local population. The first tramway reached the beach in 1884 and the tram became the first public transportation in Bondi. As an alternative, this action changed the rule that only wealthy people couÄd enjoy the beach. By the 1930s Bondi was drawing not only local visitors but also people from elsewhere in Australia and overseas.

The increasing popularity of sea bathing during the late 1800s and early 1900s raised concerns about public safety. In response, the world’s first formally documented surf lifesaving club, the Bondi Surf Bathers’ Life Saving Club was formed in February 1906, the first club house being a simple tent in the dunes. This was powerfully reinforced by the dramatic events of “Black Sunday” at Bondi in 1938. Some 35,000 people were on the beach and a large group of lifesavers were about to start a surf race when three freak waves hit the beach, sweeping hundreds of people out to sea. Lifesavers rescued 300 people, the largest mass rescue in the history of surf bathing.

Bondi Beach is the end point of the City to Surf Fun Run, the largest running event in the world, which is held each year in August. Australian surf carnivals further instilled this image. Particularly popuÄar during the inter-War years and immediately after World War ll, these displays of pageantry, discipline, strength and skill drew large crowds and even royal attention. A Royal Surf Carnival was held at Bondi Beach for Queen Elizabeth 11 during her first tour to Australia in 1954. In addition to many activities, Bondi Beach Market is open every Sunday. Many wealthy people spend Christmas Day at the beach. However, a shortage of houses occurs when lots of people rushed to the seaside. Manly is the seashore town which solved this problem. However, people still choose Bondi as their destination rather than Manly.

A commercial retail centre is separated from Bondi Beach by Campbell Parade, and Bondi Park, featuring many popuÄar cafes, restaurants, and hotels, with views of the beach. The valley running down to the beach is famous over the world for its view of distinctive red tiled roofs. These architectural styles are deeply influenced by the coastal towns in England. In the last decade, Bondi Beaches’ unique position has seen a dramatic rise in svelte contemporary houses and apartments to take advantage of the views and scent of the sea. Bondi Beach hosted the beach volleyball competition at the 2000 Summer Olympics. A temporary 10,000-seat stadium, a much smaller stadium, 2 warm-up courts, and 3 training courts were set up to host the tournament and only stood for six weeks. The stadium had uncovered seating around three sides, and a partly covered stand on one side. Campaigners opposed both the social and environmental consequences of the development. “They’re prepared to risk lives and risk the Bondi beach environment for the sake of eight days of volleyball”, said Stephen Uniacke, a construction lawyer involved in the campaign. Other environmental concerns include the possibility that soil dredged up from below the sand will acidify when brought to the surface.

Questions 1 – 5

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1 ?

In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. Indigenous people learned rock carvings from the Europeans.

2. Bondi Beach was not a public gathering area at the beginning.

3. Sea bathing was considered to be beneficial for physical health during the early 1900s.

4. British coastal towns affect the building style in areas adjacent to Bondi Beach.

5. Bondi Beach was partly damaged due to the construction of the volleyball stadium.

Questions 6-9

Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 6—9 on your answer sheet.

6. Which public transport did people take to go to Bondi in the late 19th century?

7. When did British Royalty first go to Bondi?

8. What sort of Olympic sport was held in Bondi in 2000?

9. Apart from their social activities, what were local people worried might be ruined when the stadium was constructed?

Questions 10 – 13

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 10—13 on your answer sheet.

There ate all sorts of sport held at Bondi Beach every year, which attract lots of 10………… ……..to go there on their vacations. However, the accommodation is not sufficient and the nearby city 11………………..has become the supplementary. As a matter of fact, 12 ………………..is still the best choice for residents. The buildings along the valley to Bondi are famous for their coloured 13………………..and their European style.

 

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions, which are based on Re Passage 2 below.

Questions 14-18

Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A—G

Choose the correct heading for paragraph A, C—E and G from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number i—ix in boxes 14—18 on your answer sheet.

14. Paragraph A

Example Answer

Paragraph B iv

15. Paragraph C

16. Paragraph D

17. Paragraph E

Example                  Answer

Paragraph F             V

18. Paragraph G

List of Headings

i Remembering the past more clearly

ii Bringing back painful memories

iii Originally an alarm signal

iv The physical effects of scent versus image

v Checking unreliable evidence

vi Reinforcing one sense with another

vii Protection against reliving the past

viii The overriding power of sight and sound

ix Conflicting views

Follow your nose

A. Aromatherapy is the most widely used complementary therapy in the National Health Service, and doctors use it most often for treating dementia. For elderly patients who have difficulty interacting verbally, and to whom conventional medicine has little to offer, aromatherapy can bring benefits in terms of better sleep, improved motivation, and less disturbed behaviour. So the thinking goes. But last year, a systematic review of health care databases found almost no evidence that aromatherapy is effective in the treatment of dementia. Other findings suggest that aromatherapy works only if you believe it will. In fact, the only research that has unequivocally shown it to have an effect has been carried out on animals.

B. Behavioural studies have consistently shown that odours elicit emotional memories far more readily than other sensory cues. And earlier this year, Rachel Herz, of Brown University in Providence, Rhode Island, and colleagues peered into people’s heads using functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) to corroborate that. They scanned the brains of five women while they either looked at a photo of a bottle of perfume that evoked a pleasant memory for them, or smelled that perfume. One woman, for instance, remembered how as a child living in Paris—she would watch with excitement as her mother dressed to go out and sprayed herself with that perfume. The women themselves described the perfume as far more evocative than the photo, and Herz and co-workers found that the scent did indeed activate the amygdala and other brain regions associated with emotion processing far more strongly than the photograph. But the interesting thing was that the memory itself was no better recalled by the odour than by the picture. “People don’t remember any more detail or with any more clarity when the memory is recalled with an odour,” she says. “However, with the odour, you have this intense emotional feeling that’s really visceral.”

C. That’s hardly surprising, Herz thinks, given how the brain has evolved. “The way I like to think about it is that emotion and olfaction are essentially the same thing,” she says. “The part of the brain that controls emotion literally grew out of the part of the brain that controls smell.” That, she says, probably explains why memories for odours that are associated with intense emotions are so strongly entrenched in us, because smell was initially a survival skill: a signal to approach or to avoid.

D. Eric Vermetten, a psychiatrist at the University of Utrecht in the Netherlands, says that doctors have long known about the potential of smells to act as traumatic reminders, but the evidence has been largely anecdotal. Last year, he and others set out to document it by describing three cases of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in which patients reported either that a certain smell triggered their flashbacks, or that a smell was a feature of the flashback itself. The researchers concluded that odours could be made use of in exposure therapy, or for reconditioning patients’ fear responses.

E. After Vermetten presented his findings at a conference, doctors in the audience told him how they had turned this association around and put it to good use. PTSD patients often undergo group therapy, but the therapy itself can expose them to traumatic reminders. “Some clinicians put a strip of vanilla or a strong, pleasant, everyday odorant such as coffee under their patients’ noses, so that they have this continuous olfactory stimulation.” says Vermetten. So armed, the patients seem to be better protected against flashbacks. It’s purely anecdotal, and nobody knows what’s happening in the brain, says Vermetten, but it’s possible that the neural pathways by which the odour elicits the pleasant, everyday memory override the fear-conditioned neural pathways that respond to verbal cues.

F. According to Herz, the therapeutic potential of odours could lie in their very unreliability. She has shown with her perfume-bottle experiment that they don’t guarantee any better recall, even if the memories they elicit feel more real. And there’s plenty of research to show that our noses can be tricked, because being predominantly visual and verbal creatures, we put more faith in those other modalities. In 2001, for instance, Gil Morrot, of the National Institute for Agronomic Research in Montpellier, tricked 54 oenology students by secretly colouring a white wine with an odourless red dye just before they were asked to describe the odours of a range of red and white wines. The students described the coloured wine using terms typically reserved for red wines. What’s more, just like experts, they used terms alluding to the wine’s redness and darkness—visual rather than olfactory qualities. Smell, the researchers concluded, cannot be separated from the other senses.

G. Last July, Jay Gottfried and Ray Dolan of the Wellcome Department of Imaging Neuroscience in London took that research a step further when they tested people’s response times in naming an odour, either when presented with an image that was associated with the odour or one that was not. So, they asked them to sniff vanilla and simultaneously showed them either a picture of ice cream or of cheese, while scanning their brains in a fMRI machine. People named the smells faster when the picture showed something semantically related to them, and when that happened, a structure called the hippocampus was strongly activated. The researchers’ interpretation was that the hippocampus plays a role in integrating information from the senses— information that the brain then uses to decide what it is perceiving.

Questions 19 – 24

Look at the following findings (Questions 19-24) and the list of researchers

Match each finding with the correct researcher, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 19-24 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

19. Smell can trigger images of horrible events.

20. Memory cannot get sharper by smell.

21. When people are given an odour and a picture of something to learn, they will respond more quickly in naming the smell because the stimulus is stronger when two or more senses are involved.

22. Pleasant smells counteract unpleasant recollections.

23. It is impossible to isolate smell from visual cues.

24. The part of brain that governs emotion is more stimulated by a smell than an image.

A. Rachel Hertz

B. Eric Vermetten

C. Gil Morrot

D. Jay Gottfried and Ray Dolan

Questions 25 – 26

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 25-26 on your answer sheet.

25. In the article, what is the opinion about the conventional method of aromatherapy?

A. Aromatherapy is the use of essential oils extracted from plants.

B. Evidence has proved that aromatherapy is effective in treating dementia.

C. People who feel aromatherapy is effective believe it is useful.

D. Aromatherapy is especially helpful for elderly patients.

26. What is Rachel Hertz’s conclusion?

A. The area of the brain which activates emotion has the same physiological structure as the part controlling olfaction.

B. We cannot depend on smell, and people have more confidence in sight and spoken or written words.

C. Odours can recall real memories even after the perfume-bottle experiment.

D. Smell has proved its therapeutic effect over a long time span.

 

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Passage 3 below.

Architecture in Britain

From the Middle Ages to the 20th century, what are the influences and movements that have shaped the changing face of British architecture?

Architecture is about evolution, not revolution. It used to be thought that once the Romans pulled out of Britain in the fifth century, their elegant villas, carefully-planned towns and engineering marvels like Hadrian’s Wall simply fell into decay as British culture was plunged into the Dark Ages. It took the Norman Conquest of 1 066 to bring back the light, and the Gothic cathedral-builders of the Middle Ages played an important part in the revival of British culture. However, the truth is not as simple as that. Romano-British culture—and that included architecture along with language, religion, political organisation and the arts—survived long after the Roman withdrawal. And although the Anglo-Saxons had a sophisticated building style of their own, little survives to bear witness to their achievements as the vast majority of Anglo- Saxon buildings were made of wood.

Even so, the period between the Norman landing at Pevensey in 1066 and the day in 1485 when Richard III lost his horse and his head at Bosworth, ushering in the Tudors and the Early Modern period, marks a rare flowering of British buildings. And it is all the more remarkable because the underlying ethos of medieval architecture was “fitness for purpose”. The great cathedrals and parish churches that lifted up their towers to heaven were not only acts of devotion in stone; they were also fiercely functional buildings. Castles served their particular purpose and their battlements and turrets were for use rather than ornament. The rambling manor houses of the later Middle Ages, however, were primarily homes, their owners achieving respect and maintaining status by their hospitality and good lordship rather than the grandeur of their buildings. In a sense, the buildings of the 16th century were also governed by fitness for purpose—only now, the purpose was very different. In domestic architecture, in particular, buildings were used to display status and wealth.

This stately and curious workmanship showed itself in various ways. A greater sense of security led to more outward-looking buildings, as opposed to the medieval arrangement where the need for defence created houses that faced inward onto a courtyard or series of courtyards. This allowed for much more in the way of exterior ornament. The rooms themselves tended to be bigger and lighter—as an expensive commodity, the use of great expanses of glass was in itself a statement of wealth.

There was also a general move towards balanced and symmetrical exteriors with central entrances. With the exception of Inigo Jones (1573-1652), whose confident handling of classical detail and proportion set him apart from all other architects of the period, most early 1 7th century buildings tended to take the innocent exuberance of late Tudor work one step further. But during the 1640s and 50s the Civil War and its aftermath sent many gentlemen and nobles to the Continent either to escape the fighting or, when the war was lost, to follow Charles II into exile. There they came into contact with French, Dutch and Italian architecture and, with Charles’s restoration in 1 660, there was a flurry of building activity as royalists reclaimed their property and built themselves houses reflecting the latest European trends. The British Baroque was a reassertion of authority, an expression of absolutist ideology by men who remembered a world turned upside down during the Civil War. The style is heavy and rich, sometimes overblown and melodramatic. The politics which underpin it are questionable, but its products are breathtaking.

The huge glass-and-iron Crystal Palace, designed by Joseph Paxton to house the Great Exhibition of 1851, shows another strand to 19th century architecture—one which embraced new industrial processes. But it wasn’t long before even this confidence in progress came to be regarded with suspicion. Mass production resulted in buildings and furnishings that were too perfect, as the individual craftsman no longer had a major role in their creation. Railing against the dehumanising effects of industrialisation, reformers like John Ruskin and William Morris made a concerted effort to return to hand-crafted, pre-industrial manufacturing techniques. Morris’s influence grew from the production of furniture and textiles, until by the 1880s a generation of principled young architects was following his call for good, honest construction.

The most important trends in early 20th century architecture simply passed Britain by. Whilst Gropius was working on cold, hard expanses of glass, and Le Corbusier was experimenting with the use of reinforced concrete frames, we had staid establishment architects like Edwin Lutyens producing Neo-Georgian and Renaissance country houses for an outmoded landed class. In addition there were slightly batty architectcraftsmen, the heirs of William Morris, still trying to turn the clock back to before the Industrial Revolution by making chairs and spurning new technology. Only a handful of Modern Movement buildings of any real merit were produced here during the 1920s and 1930s, and most of these were the work of foreign architects such as Serge Chermayeff, Berthold Lubetkin and Erno Gold-finger who had settled in this country.

After the Second World War the situation began to change. The Modern Movement’s belief in progress and the future struck a chord with the mood of post-war Britain and, as reconstruction began under Attlee’s Labour government in 1 945, there was a desperate need for cheap housing which could be produced quickly. The use of prefabricated elements, metal frames, concrete cladding and the absence of decoration—all of which had been embraced by Modernists abroad and viewed with suspicion by the British—were adopted to varying degrees for housing developments and schools. Local authorities, charged with the task of rebuilding city centres, became important patrons of architecture. This represented a shift away from the private individuals who had dominated the architectural scene for centuries.

Since the War it has been corporate bodies like these local authorities, together with national and multinational companies, and large educational institutions, which have dominated British architecture. By the late 1 980s the Modern Movement, unfairly blamed for the social experiments implicit in high-rise housing, had lost out to irony and spectacle in the shape of post-modernism, with its cheerful borrowings from anywhere and any period. But now, in the new Millennium, even post-modernism is showing signs of age. What comes next?

Questions 27 – 31

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 27—31 on your answer sheet.

27 After Romans left Britain,

A. their achievements were neglected.

B. their cultural legacy endured.

C. there was an abrupt culture change.

D. their buildings were well protected.

28 Medieval architecture aspired all above to be

A. immense.

B. useful.

C. decorative.

D. durable.

29 Which of the following architectural features characterize the 16th-century architecture in Britain?

A. They faced inward.

B. They had plain exteriors.

C. They had small windows.

D. They used symmetry in architecture.

30 How did the 17th-century British buildings come to be influenced by styles from continental Europe?

A. Fugitives brought ideas from continental Europe back to Britain.

B. British craftsmen went to work in other countries.

C. Monarchs encouraged cultural contact with other countries.

D. Buildings were restored by architects in European countries.

31 What drove building designs after the Second World War?

A. Conservatism

B. a housing shortage

C. foreign architecture

D. wealthy patronage

Questions 32 – 40

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 32-40 on your answer sheet.

32. Because most Anglo-Saxon buildings were constructed from……………….. , few of them have survived.

33. The owners of medieval manor houses in Britain earned their reputation through their………………..and elegance.

34. The 16th-century building was designed to show evidence of……………….. and

35. In the 16th century, the use of glass was fashionable, even though it was an………..

36. Indigo Jones was particularly skilful in designing architecture in the……………….. style.

37. Though William Morris designed……………. and……………….. , his emphasis on hand-crafting influenced architects.

38. In the early 20th century, architects like………………..were producing conservative designs.

39. Before the Second World War, modern movement buildings in Britain were mainly designed by…………………

40. After the Second World War, much architecture was commissioned by……………….. rather than private individuals.

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IELTS Listening Practice Test 01 from wiki-study.com

IELTS Listening Practice Test 01 from wiki-study.com

SECTION 1 Questions 1-10

Choose the correct letter, A-C

Mrs Grey_______

A. recognised the caller

B. was expecting the call that day

C. waited for a call for a day or two

Example: C

Question 1

Choose the correct letter, A-C

Mrs Grey ________________

A. docs not have any pets

B. had just put the kettle on for coffee when the call came

C. is impressed by Yuki waiting up late to call

Questions 2 and 3

Complete the following sentence with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Yuki’s teacher says English people 2.____________ after dinner. or go 3.________________

Questions 4 and 5

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD or A TIME for each answer.

4. About what time does Mrs Grey expect Fred to get back?

5. Who is the oldest among Yuki, Richard, and Ann?

Question 6
Choose the correct letter, A-C

A. Ann is studying away at university.

B. Yuki will have his own room at the Grey’s.

C. Yuki is the Grey family’s first Japanese homestay student.

Questions 7-10
Complete the following notes written by Mrs Grey with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Arrive Heathrow 7.__________________ , 15lh at 10:30 a.m.

Japan Airlines flight 8._____________

Lots of 9.________________ (so, take station wagon)

Write 10._______________

SECTION 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12
Choose the correct letters, A-C

11. Why is the visa officer showing slides of forms?

A. The forms can be downloaded from ukvisas.gov.uk.

B. Copies of the forms arc available in the visa office.

C. To reduce costs

12. Which of the following people don’t need an entry clearance before entering the UK?

A. Citizens of one of the European Economic Area countries

B. Visa nationals

C. Foreigners who intend to live in the UK with a British spouse

Questions 13 – 15

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

List three reasons why the holder of a valid UK visa may be refused entry to the UK on arrival.

13. ________________

14. ________________

15. ________________

Question 16
Choose ONE letter, A- C

UK visas are usually ________________

A. valid for three months

B. multiple entry

C. complete with the names of people the holder will stay with

Question 17
Answer the following question in NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

On the questionnaire, what question follows Country of Nationality?

Questions 18-20
Choose THREE letters, A-F.

The visa officer says sponsored visitors to the UK

A. must have friends or relatives in the UK

B. can stay in the UK for less than six months

C. should leave the UK at the end of the visit

D. need to fill out a special application form

E. should have enough money to live on without working

F. cannot apply for a housing benefit

SECTION 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21-23
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

What are the first three things that Joan says she is worried about?

21. ________________
22. ________________
23. ________________

Question 24

Choose the correct letter, A-C.

Bob’s company

A. advises environmentally responsible companies and consumers

B. helps such companies educate consumers

C. advises consumers to buy green products

Question 25
Write ONE WORD for your answer.

What type of pollutant does Joan say is found at high levels in two Arctic animals?

________________

Questions 26 and 27
Choose TWO letters, A-E,

Why did John and Joan buy a new fridge?

A. Their old one was not working well,

B. Their old one was too large,

C. To save energy

D. They didn’t like the old one,

E. To save money on electricity bills

Questions 28 – 30

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

28. What are POPs?

29. What type of illness does Joan mention?

30. Where do John and Joan get most of their vegetables from?

SECTION 4 Questions 31-40
Questions 31 and 32
Complete the following sentence. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

The professor says studying properly uses our 31. ________________and gives us 32. ________________

Questions 33 and 34
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

What two things does the professor say can be challenged by crosswords and computer games?

33. ________________

34. ________________

Questions 35 – 37

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

What two immediate benefits of physical exercise does the professor mention?

35. ________________

36. ________________ and memory

37. The professor says we do things better when we do them in places that we ________________ a particular activity.

Question 38

Choose the correct letter, A-C.

The professor says it is good to study in a library because of

A. the quiet

B. the academic atmosphere

C. the relaxing environment

Questions 39 and 40
Complete the sentence with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The professor says questions raised before you start studying are like 39. ________________ and every forty or fifty minutes you should think back and 40. ________________

Answer Keys here:

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