TOEFL IBT READING PRACTICE TEST 39 SOLUTION & EXPLANATION

Solution for toefl ibt reading practice test 39

Passage 1

 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B, C, E)

1. Factual Information | (A)

Q. In paragraph 1, the author describes the study of the cell as

Why? ^See Clue 1(A)[lines 13-16] ___ The knowledge of cells that scientists enjoy today is the result of an accumulation of many individual discoveries and achievements.

Why Not? (B)-(D) Not mentioned

2. Vocabulary | (C)

Q. The word undetected in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? unseen can replace undetected in this context. **See Clue 2(C)[lines 17-19]

undetected adj. not perceived or discerned  | • unseen adj. not seen or perceived

3. Sentence Simplification | (B)

Q. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

Why? Thus, one very important occurrence in the history of the understanding of the cell // took place in 1595 with the invention of the first compound microscope—that is, the first microscope to make use of more of the first multiple-lens microscope was than one lens in its magnification process.

Why Not? (A) Not supported

(C), (D) Information that the invention of the compound microscope played an important role in cell research history is left out.

4. Vocabulary | (A)

Q. The word slivers in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? slices can replace slivers in this context. **-See Clue 4(A)[lines 35-38]

sliver n. small, often sharp portion that has been cut or broken off something

slice n. thin, flat piece cut from a larger whole

5. Reference | (D)

Q. The word it in the passage refers to

Why? … a lack of advancement in microscope designs made it impossible for more in-depth research on the cell to be conducted. In the 1800s, however, it began again at a remarkable pace. ~See Clue 5(D)[lines 47-51]

6. Rhetorical Purpose | (D)

Q. In paragraph 4, the author introduces the Cell Theory by

Why? The Cell Theory formulated by Schwann is introduced after discussing Brown’s nucleus discovery and Schleiden and Schwann’s research. <*See Clue 6(D)[lines 58-66]

7. Vocabulary | (B)

Q. The word formulated in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? developed can replace formulated in this context. —See Clue 7(B)[lines 66-67]

formulate v. to develop an idea, or a plan

develop v. to elaborate or expand in detail

8. Factual Information | (C)

Q. According to the passage, the person who first determined what lies at the center of a plant’s cell was

Why? -See Clue 8<C)[lines 58-60]

9. Factual Information | (D)

Q. According to paragraph 5, how did Rudolf Virchow change the original Cell Theory?

Why? —See Clue 9(D][lines 79-82]

Why Not? (AHC) Not mentioned

10. Vocabulary | (C)

Q. The word asserting in the passage is closest in meaning to

 Why? declaring can replace asserting in this context. —See Clue 10(C)[lines 79-82]

assert v. to state something firmly

declare v. to state officially about a particular situation existing

11. Rhetorical Purpose | (C)

Q. Why does the author mention in paragraph 6?

Why? Science and medicine are mentioned to show that there will be innovations in these fields owing to cellular research. —See Clue 1 C [lines 93-96]

12. Insert Text | Q

Q. Look at the four squares [|] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.

Why?  [B] These were in fact the walls of dead cells, since cork comes from dead plant material. [C] Hooke decided to call these chambers ‘cells” because they reminded him of the small monastery cells that monks lived in. [D] Now, with concrete evidence of its existence, the study off the cell had begun. For more than a century after Hooke’s discovery, a lack of advancement in microscope designs made it impossible for more in-depth research on the cell to be conducted.

► “concrete evidence of its existence’ in the given sentence refers to the discovery of the cell and its naming in the preceding sentences.

13. Prose Summary

Q. Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.

Why? It took centuries of scientific thought and research to achieve the understanding of the cell that is shared by scientists today.

Correct Answer Choices Clues in the passage
(B) Using a newly introduced microscope to look at cork samples, Robert Hooke was able for the first time to observe the presence of cells. Clue 13(B)[lines 33-38] It was such a device that allowed English scientist Robert Hooke in 1663 to become the first known human to observe a cell. He cut some thin slivers of cork … and viewed them under the microscope.
(C) In the early 1800s, cytoplasm and nuclei were both discovered to be important components of plant cells, and the first Cell Theory was introduced. Clue 13(C)[lines 51-60] During the early part of the century,… Living plant cells, as opposed to those of Hooke’s cork samples, were found to contain a variety of smaller elements surrounded by a liquid mixture termed “cytoplasm.” In 1833, the naturalist Robert Brown discovered the nucleus, or central structure, of plant cells.

[lines 66-67] Schwann subsequently formulated what became known as the Cell Theory.

(E) The Cell Theory was soon revised to include new information about cellular reproduction and became the foundation of modern cellular study. Clue 13(E)[lines 79-82] Rudolf Virchow corrected this misunderstanding, asserting that cells reproduce by dividing and that they can only be created by other cells.

[lines 84-86] formalizing the version of the Cell Theory that has remained mostly unchanged to this day

 

► The whole passage focuses on the history of cell study. And it follows that <(B) Robert Hooke’s first discovery of cells and its background —• (C) Development of cell study and the establishment of the Cell Theory — (E) Revision of the Cell Theory and its status) -»-See < Graphic Organizer> on p.291

Why Not? (A) Mentioned in lines 19-27, but minor / (D) Incorrect –See lines 70-74/ (F) Mentioned in lines 87-90, but minor..

KEY for Reading Passage 2

14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24.0 25. (B), (C), (F)

14. Vocabulary | (B)

Q. The word external in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? independent can replace external in this context. See Clue 14(B)[lines 6-12]

external adj. relating to the outside of something

independent adj. existing on its own

15. Factual Information | (D)

Q. According to paragraph 1, what is pollination?

Why? **See Clue 15(D)[lines 4-6]

► This process is called pollination, a reference to the pollen (the male sex cell) that is carried to the carpel.

16. Sentence Simplification | (B)

Q. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

Why? Furthermore, because all the plants in a single-crop field bloom at the same time, dense concentrations of pollinators are needed, // but only for a short amount of time, // while, during the rest of the year, // the field does not offer enough food to support these natural pollinators.

Why Not? (A) Information about when the field does not offer enough food to natural pollinators is left out.

(C) Not mentioned

(D) Incorrect

17. Factual Information | (A)

Q. According to paragraph 4, ‘managed pollinators’ are

Why? ~See Clue 17(A)[lines 54-57]

► ‘Managed pollinators’ is a term ascribed to bees that are cultivated for the specific purpose of agricultural pollination.

Why Not? (B), (C) Not mentioned / (D) Incorrect See lines 57-59

18. Rhetorical Purpose | (D)

Q. In paragraph 5, why does the author mention

Why? •rSee Clue 18(D)[lines 69-75]

19. Vocabulary | (B)

Q. The word susceptible in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? vulnerable can replace susceptible in this context. **~See Clue 19(B)[lines 77-81]

susceptible adj. likely to suffer from a particular problem or be affected with a disease

vulnerable adj. liable to be hurt or damaged

20. Negative Fad | (B)

Q. The passage identifies all of the following as threats to populations of natural pollinators EXCEPT

Why Not? (A) Mentioned in lines 43-46 / (C) Mentioned in lines 82-85 / (D) Mentioned in lines 79-82

21. Vocabulary | (Cl

Q. The word cling in the passage is closest in meaning to

mm Why? stick can replace cling in this context. See Clue 21(C)[lines 98-99]

cling v. to stick to something

stick v. to attach to something using a substance, or being attached to a surface

22. Reference | (B)

Q. The word them in the passage refers to

Why? They introduced an electrostatic charge to test plants and then dusted charged pollen grains over them. ~See Clue 22(B)[lines 101-103]

23. Factual Information | (D)

Q. According to paragraph 6, what is the function of a honeybee’s electrostatic charge?

Why? **-See Clue 23(D)]lines 97-99]

► … pollinating insects like bees have an electrostatic charge that causes pollen to cling to their bodies.

Why Not? (A), (B) Not mentioned / (C) Incorrect «-See lines 101-103

24. Insert Text | [C]

Q. Look at the four squares [|] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.

Why? [A] In the United States agricultural industry, ninety different crops rely on honeybees for pollination, but the crop requiring the most bees is the California almond. [B] In total, this industry uses one million hives—almost half the U.S. population of managed honeybees. [C] Another crop that requires require a number of honeybees large amounts of honeybees is the Maine blueberry, which uses 50,000 hives yearly for the purpose of pollination. Managed pollinators like honeybees are an important alternative to natural pollination, but the main drawback is that managed honeybee populations are susceptible to the same factors—such as harmful pesticides and insect diseases—that have reduced natural pollinator populations. [D]

► ‘this industry’ refers to ‘the California almond.

25. Prose Summary

Q. Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.

Why? Pollination takes place when pollen is carried from one part of a plant to another, and this process has occurred naturally for thousands of years.

 

Correct Answer Choices ; Clues in the passage
(B) Modem human practices, such as creating single-crop fields, have led to the failure of natural pollination in many cases. Clue 25(B)[lines 27-33] However, in modern U.S. food production, this method (natural pollination) alone is no longer sufficient to fertilize all the plants involved. This is because current agricultural practices often encourage the seeding of large fields with a single crop, thus reducing the diversity of the land.
(C) Farmers throughout the United States employ large concentrations of honeybees to pollinate their fields, a process known as managed pollination. Clue 25(C)[lines 54-57] “Managed pollinators” is a term ascribed to bees that are cultivated for the specific purpose of agricultural pollination.

[lines 66-69] Fruit and vegetable growers all over the United States contract with beekeepers, hiring the services of honeybees to pollinate their fields.

(F) Artificial pollination methods such as electrostatic pollination offer an alternative to the use of insects that are vulnerable to diseases and environmental changes. Clue 25(F)[lines 78-81] managed honeybee populations are susceptible to the same factors— such as harmful pesticides and insect diseases [lines 91-96] This method (artificial pollination) accomplishes pollination through artificial techniques, eliminating the need for natural or managed pollinators like honeybees. One such technique currently in use is called electrostatic pollination.

► The whole passage focuses on the three pollination methods and their advantages and disadvantages. And it follows that <{B) Problems in natural pollination — (C) Managed pollination, an alternative to natural pollination — (F) A new alternative, artificial pollination) See on p.297 

Why Not? (A) Mentioned in lines 14-16, but minor / (D) Incorrect ~See lines 86-89/(E) Incorrect ~See lines 101-103

KEY for Reading Passage 3

26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. □ 38. Stage Acting: (B), (C), (D), (F) / Screen Acting: (A), (H). ( I )

26. Vocabulary | (C)

Q. The word move in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? touch can replace move in this context. -■See Clue 26(C)[lines 2-5]

move v. to make someone experience strong emotions

touch v. to affect someone’s emotions

27. Factual Information | (A)

Q. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true about the history of acting?

Why? 1 2 See Clue 27(A)[lines 5-7]

Why Not? (BMD) Not mentioned

28. Reference | (C)

Q. The word both in the passage refers to

Why? Though both can trace the history of their professions back to the earliest playwrights and performers, stage and screen actors rely on very different techniques. 3See Clue 28(C)[lines 13-16] the same precision and excitement.

Why Not? (B), (D) Not mentioned

(C) Information that the audience for each performance is new is left out.

29. Factual Information | (B)

Q. According to paragraph 2, what should a play do in order to achieve success?

Why? ~See Clue 29(B)[lines 21-24] k Why Not? (A), (C), (D) Not mentioned

30. Vocabulary | (D)

Q. The word pronounced in the passage is closest in meaning to

Mi Why? obvious can replace pronounced in this context. See Clue 30(D)[lines 26-34]

pronounced adj. strongly marked or noticeable

obvious adj. easily noticed or understood

31. Inference | (D)

Q. Based on the information in paragraph 3, it can be inferred that the amount of exaggeration a stage actor employs might vary depending on

Why? (D) can be inferred from the information in lines 26-32. ^See Clue 31(D)

Why Not? (AMC) Not supported

32. Sentence Simplification | (A)

Q. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

Why? In addition, because the audience for each performance is a new, different set of people, // the ideal stage actor should be able to perform his or her part night after night as if it were the first time…

33. Vocabulary | (D)

Q. The word intimate in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? personal can replace intimate in this context.

intimate adj. associated to very private or personal areas

personal adj. relating to private matters

34. Inference | (B)

Q.  According to paragraph 5, what can be inferred about talented screen actors?

Why? (B) can be inferred from the information in lines 68-69. «-See Clue 34(B)

Why Not? (A), <C), (D) Not supported

35. Vocabulary | (B)

Q. The word meal in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? be good can replace excel in this context. **-See Clue 35(B)[lines 89-93]

excel v. to do something that is superior to or surpasses others

• be good be able to do something well

36. Inference | (B)

Q. From paragraph 4 and paragraph 6, what can be inferred to be the similarity between stage and screen actors?

Why? (B) can be inferred from the information in lines 84-87. **See Clue 36(B)

Why Not? (A) Incorrect «-See lines 89-931 (C) Not supported / (D) Incorrect **~See lines 47-49

37. Insert Text | [B]

Q. Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.

Why? [A] The most fundamental element of any performance is the audience. [B] The onlookers are the ones for whom the story is told and therefore are the ones who determine how the story is told.

For instance, the audience of a play is made up of people who are physically present in the vicinity of the stage. [C]

► “The onlookers” in the given sentence refers to “the audience” and it is specified to “the audience of a play” in the following sentence beginning with For instance.

38. Schematic Table

Q. Directions: Complete the table by matching the phrases below.

Select the appropriate phrases from the answer choices and match them to the type of acting to which they relate. TWO of the answer choices will NOT be used. This question is worth 4 points.

Why?

 

Correct Answer Choices Clues in the passage
  (B) Relies largely on actors’ voices to convey important details Clue 38(B)[lines 41-43] actor should be able to transmit those normally visible features of a character through his or her voice
Stage Acting (C) Requires that actors consistently recall their lines correctly Clue 38(C)[lines 47-49] During a show, actors must deliver their lines correctly on the first attempt
  (D) Reflects most closely the performance styles of long ago Clue 38(D)[lines 9-7] For nearly all of this time, plays acted out live onstage were the dominant format.
  (F) Demands that actors more explicitly display their characters’ emotions Clue 38(F)[lines 32-34] Their physical gestures and facial expressions should be more pronounced than in real life.
  (A) Attempts to capture lifelike moments Clue 38(A)[lines 76-78] screen actors can more closely approximate the feelings and situations of real life through their performances
Screen Acting <H) Offers actors the chance to redo scenes Clue 38(H)[lines 81-84] screen actors enjoy the luxury of being able to perform a scene over and over again until they get it exactly right
  (1) Relies on technology to transmit subtleties Clue 38( 1 Klines 69-73] Small details in facial expression or tone of voice are captured by the camera and microphon

Why Not? (E) Not mentioned / (G) Incorrect –See lines 65-67

 

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TOEFL IBT READING PRACTICE TEST 38 SOLUTION & EXPLANATION

Solution for toefl ibt reading practice test 38

Reading 1 “Beowulf”

1. C “…Beowulfwas written by an anonymous [author unknown] Englishman in Old English.”

Choice A is not correct because it is one of four surviving manuscripts. Choice B is not correct because it was written in old English about Germanic characters. Choice D is not correct because scholars do not know if it is the sole surviving epic from about a.d. 1000.

2. B “Although Beowulf was written by an anonymous Englishman in Old English, the tale takes place in that part of Scandinavia from which [that part of Scandinavia] Germanic tribes emigrated to England.”

3. A “Iron was accessible everywhere in Scandinavia, usually in the form of ‘bog iron’ found in the layers of peat in peat bogs.” Choice B is not correct because the author had already stated that the best swords had iron or iron-edged blades. Choice C is not correct because the Celts taught the Northmen how to use the materials, but they did not provide the bog iron. Choice D is not correct because the bog iron does not relate to the date, although 500 b.c. is mentioned as the time when the Northmen learned how to forge iron.

4. A Society in Anglo-Saxon England paraphrases “Anglo-Saxon society.” … both advanced para phrases “neither primitive,” and cultured paraphrases “nor uncultured.” Two negatives [nor and -un] produce an affirmative meaning.

5. B In this passage, rare is a synonym for “unique.” Context comes from the reference to the “sole surviving epic” in the beginning of the same sentence.

6. B “… the original manuscript was probably lost during the ninth century…. in which the Danes destroyed the Anglo-Saxon monasteries and their great libraries.” Choice A is true but it is not the reason that scholars believe the original manuscript was lost. Choice C is not correct because the Danes were invaders, not poets. Choice D is not correct because the location of the discovery is not mentioned, although the author may have been a monk.

7. D “Although the Beowulf manuscript was written in about a.d. 1000, it was not discovered until the seventeenth century.” Choice A is not correct because the first century was the date the manuscript was written, not discovered. Choice B is not correct because the ninth century was the date when the original manuscript may have been lost. Choice C is not correct because some scholars think that the manuscript was written in the eleventh century.

8. A Because the word “apparently” means “appearing to be so,” the author is expressing doubt about the information that follows, “… [the Beowulf poet] was a Christian.” Choice B is not correct because the word “obviously” would be used. Choice C is not correct because the phrases “for example” or “for instance” would signal an example. Choice D is not correct because evidence would not be presented as “appearing to be so.”

9. A “.. . Beowulf is a very appealing hero … Like Hercules.” Choice B is not correct because a fight with a dragon is mentioned in reference to Beowulf but not to Hercules. Choice C is not correct because the Danish hero’s welcome is the only reference to a speech, and it was jealous, not inspiring. Choice D is not correct because the time period for the life of Hercules is not mentioned.

10. B In this passage, demonstrates is a synonym for “exhibits.”

11. C In this passage, refuse is a synonym for “reject.” Context comes from the contrast with “accept” in the previous sentence.

12. C Addition is a transitional device that connects the insert sentence with the previous sentence.

Moreover signals that additional, related information will follow. “. . . they [scholars] disagree” refers to “Scholars do not know” in the previous sentence.

13. E, D, F summarize the passage. Choice A is true, but it is a minor point that establishes the time period for the poem and refers to major point D. Choice B is true, but it is a detail that refers to major point E and explains why there may be only one manuscript. Choice C is not clear from the information in the passage.

Reading 2 “Thermoregulation”

14. A “The most basic mechanism [for maintenance of warm body temperature] is the high meta bolic rate.” Choices B, C, and D are all ways to maintain body temperature, but they are not the most fundamental adaptation.

15. D “In some mammals, certain hormones can cause mitochondria to increase their metabolic activity and produce heat instead of ATP. This non shivering thermogenesis (NST). . . .” Choice A is not correct because thermogenesis is the activity that generates heat, not the heat loss. Choice B is not correct because brown fat is one example of a more generalized process. Choice C is not correct because thermogenesis is a response to the environment to maintain the health of the animal, not a process that maintains the environment.

16. B A passive grammatical structure in the passage is paraphrased by an active grammatical structure in the answer choice.

17. D In this passage, smallest is a synonym for “minimal.”

18. B “For example, heat loss from a human is reduced when arms and legs cool.” Choice A is not correct because goose bumps, not heat loss in the extremities, is a vestige of our evolution. Choice C is not correct because no direct comparisons of -these processes are made in the paragraph. Choice D is not correct because the types of insulation are mentioned before the concept of vasodilatation and vasoconstriction are introduced.

19. D In this passage, control is a synonym for “regulate.” Context comes from the reference to “tem perature differences” at the end of the same sentence.

20. B “The loss of heat to water occurs 50 to 100 times more rapidly than heat loss to air.” Choice A is not correct because hair loses insulating power when wet, but the evolution of marine animals is not mentioned. Choice C is not correct because dry hair insulates better than wet hair. Choice D is not correct because there are land animals that are of similar size.

21. D “… marine mammals maintain body core temperatures of about 36-38°C with metabolic rates about the same as those [metabolic rates] of land mammals of similar size.”

22. A “. . . capable of astonishing feats of thermoregulation. For example, small birds called chickadees … hold body temperature nearly constant.” Choice B te not correct because the food supply supports thermoregulation, which is the main point of the example. Choice C is not correct because chickadees are capable of astonishing feats of thermoregulation. Choice D is not correct because the reason for heat production in animals is explained before the example of the chickadee.

23. D Choice A is mentioned in paragraph 6, sentence 7. Choice B is mentioned in paragraph 6, sentence 8. Choice C is mentioned in paragraph 6, sentences 3 and 4.

24. B In this passage, improve is a synonym for “enhance.” Context comes from the reference to “promote” in the previous sentence.

25. A Reference is a transitional device that connects the insert sentence with the previous sentence. “… a layer of fur or feathers” and “how much still air the layer [of fur or feathers] traps” in the insert sentence refers to “… fur or feathers” and “a thicker layer of air” in the previous sentence.

26. E, C, F summarize the passage. Choice A is a minor point that supports major point C. Choice B is true but it is not mentioned in the passage. Choice D is a minor point that supports major point F.

Reading 3 “Social Readjustment Scales”

27. D “Overall, these studies have shown that people with higher scores on the SRRS tend to be more vulnerable to many kinds of physical illness ” Choice A is not correct because a person with a higher score will experience more, not less, stress. Choice B is not correct because the numerical values for major problems are not identified, and a score of 30 does not have meaning unless it is compared with a higher or lower score. Choice C is not correct because the effects of positive or negative change are not mentioned in the first two paragraphs.

28. C “… the desirability qf events affects adaptational outcomes more than the amount of change that they [events] require.”

29. D In this passage, different is a synonym for “diverse.”

30. C “. .. divorce may deserve a stress value of 73 for most people, a particular person’s divorce might generate much less stress and merit a value of only 25.” Choice A is not correct because a particular person is compared with most people. Choice B is not correct because the serious nature of divorce is not mentioned. Choice D is not correct because the numerical value of 73 for most people is questioned.

31. A “… what qualifies as trouble with the boss’? Should you check that because you’re sick and tired of your supervisor? What constitutes a ‘change in living conditions’? Does your purchase of a great new sound system qualify?” Choice B is not correct because the author does not offer examples of responses to the questions posed. Choice C is not correct because options for scores are not provided in paragraph 5. Choice D is not correct because the author suggests that people do not respond consistently but whether they respond carefully is not mentioned.

32. B . subjects’ neuroticism affects both their responses to stress scales and their self-reports of health problems.” Choice A is not correct because they recall more symptoms, but they are not ill more often. Choice C is not correct because they recall more stress, but they do not necessarily suffer more actual stress. Choice D is not correct because the effects of neuroticism obscures the meaning of the scores that are recorded.

33. C In this passage, arranged is a synonym for “assembled.”

34. C In this passage, related is a synonym for “relevant.”

35. B “… dropping the normative weights and replacing them with personally assigned weightings.”

Choice A is not correct because long-term consequences are not included in positive, negative, and total change scores. Choice C is not correct because the differences in people reflect their appraisal of stress, not how they handle stress. Choice D is not correct because normative weighting is replaced by personally assigned weightings.

36. C In paragraph 1, the authors state that the SRRS “… assigns numerical values.” Choices A and B are not correct because they are mentioned in paragraph 10 in reference to the LES, not the SRRS. Choice D is not correct because recalling events from one year ago is a problem on the SRRS.

37. A “The LES deals with the failure of the SRRS to sample the full domain of stressful events.”

Choice B is not correct because the author explains several ways that the LES deals with the failure of the SRRS. Choice C is not correct because it has been used in thousands of studies by researchers all over the world. Choice D is not correct because the LES, not the SRRS, has a special section for students.

38. B Reference is a transitional device that connects the insert sentence with the previous sentence. “This sum” in the insert sentence refers to the phrase “adds up the numbers” in the previous sentence.

39. SRRS: A, H, I LES: B, D, E, G Not used: C, F

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TOEFL IBT READING PRACTICE TEST 33 SOLUTION & EXPLANATION

Solution for toefl ibt reading practice test 33

READING PASSAGE 1

1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C)    10.    (B)    11.    (C) 12. (A) 13. Temperature: (A), (B), (F), (G) / Aridity: (D), (E), (I)

4. Inference I (A)

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about animal activity during midday?

Why? (A) can be inferred from the information in lines 47-49. <*See Clue 4(A)

Why Not? (B), (D) Incorrect *~See lines 47-49/ (C) Not supported

5. Factual Information I (C)

Q. According to paragraph 6, kangaroos and cheetahs lick their paws because

Why? —See    Clue 5{C)[lines 53-55]

► Cheetahs and kangaroos, for example, lick their paws because the resulting evaporation of water dissipates heat

Why Not? (A), (B), (D) Not mentioned

6. Reference I (C)

Q. The word them in the passage refers to

Why? Cheetahs and kangaroos, for example, lick their paws because the resulting evaporation of water dissipates heat, helping them maintain comfortable body temperatures. «-See Clue 6(C)[lines 53-56]

7. Rhetorical Purpose I (B)

Q. In paragraph 7, the author illustrates the potential efficiency of adaptations to arid climates by

Why? ~See Clue 7(B)[lines 66-69]

8. Factual Information I (C)

Q. According to paragraph 8, some insects meet their water requirements by

Why? ~See Clue 8(C)[lines 73-75]

► their water requirements are fulfilled by the water content in the foods they eat.

Why Not? (A), (B), (D) Not mentioned

9. Vocabulary I (C)

Q. The word parched in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? dry can replace parched in this context. »See Clue 9<C)[lines 95-97]

•    parched adj. extremely dry, due to hot weather

•    dry adj. lack of water or liquid

10. Inference I (B)

Q. Based on the information in paragraph 8 and paragraph 9, what can be inferred about addax?

Why? (B) can be inferred from combining the information in lines 82-86 and lines 93-94. —See Clue 10(B)

Why Not? (A), (C) Incorrect —See lines 82-86,93-94/ (D) Not supported

11. Vocabulary I (C)

Q. Based on the information in paragraph 10, which of the following best explains the term

Why? -See    Clue    11    (C)lines

12. Insert Text | [A]

Q. Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.

Why?  Many species avoid the heat by seeking shelter in microclimates—areas that can be considered miniature ”climates* in a sense, for their environmental conditions differ, in terms of temperature, from the larger climate they are contained within. [A] In the desert, such microclimates may exist in the form of shaded refuges or underground retreats. For example, kangaroo rats hide away in a type of underground microclimate—deep burrows that keep them cool. [B]

► ‘such microclimates* in the given sentence refers to ‘microclimates.*

13. Schematic Table

Q. Directions: Complete the table by matching the statements below.

Select the appropriate statements from the answer choices and match them to the type of adaptation to which they relate. TWO of the answer choices will NOT be used. This question is worth 4 points.

Why?

  Correct Answer Choices Clues in the passage
Temperature (A) Nocturnal desert species are primarily active during the night. Clue 13(A)[lines 30-32] By waiting until the sun sets to begin their periods of activity, nocturnal animals avoid the heat by coordinating their habits.
(B) In microclimates, some species avoid the general conditions of the regional climate. Clue 13(B)[lines 21-23] Many species avoid the heat by seeking shelter in microclimates—areas that can be considered miniature ‘climates*
(F) Certain species have the ability to adjust their coloration. Clue 13(F)[lines 40-41] Some animals have evolved advantageous coloration
(G) When animals pant, they increase the rate of evaporation from the respiratory tract. Clue 13(G)[lines 57-61] cheetahs … employ evaporative cooling in the form of panting, which facilitates evaporation from the respiratory system
Aridity (D) For grey kangaroos, embryonic diapause facilitates survival in desert regions. Clue 13(D)[lines 106-111] During embryonic diapause,… In this manner, the mother is able to conserve water and at the same time increase her baby’s chances of survival
(E) As they excrete biological wastes, some species expel concentrated urine. Clue 13(E)[lines 93-94] these animals discharge highly concentrated urine
(1) Desert conditions cause some species to temporarily stop breeding. Clue 13(l)[lines 102-104] Grey kangaroos also stop breeding when there are insufficient water supplies

Why Not? (C), (H) Not mentioned

1. Rhetorical Purpose I (B)

Q. In paragraph 1, why does the author mention

Why? **See Clue 1(B)[lines 7-9]

2. Sentence Simplification I (B)

Q. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

Why? Maintaining optimal body temperatures is critical for animals in a variety of climates, // but in regions where environmental temperatures range to high extremes, // control over body temperature is particularly essential, // often making the difference between life and death.

Why Not? (A), (C), (D) Information about how maintaining optimal body temperatures is critical for desert animals is left out.

3. Vocabulary I (C)

Q. The word scorching in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? burning can replace scorching in this context. *See Clue 3(C)[lines 16-17]

scorching adj. extremely hot 

burning adj. on fire

KEY FOR READING PASSAGE 2

14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24.(D) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (B), (C). (D)

14. Vocabulary [C]

Q. The word mitigate in the passage is closest in meaning to14. Vocabulary I (C)

Why? relieve can replace mitigate in this context. —See Clue 14(C)[lines 3-6]

•    mitigate v. to lessen the unpleasant effects of a situation

•    relieve v. to free or lessen someone’s pain or unpleasant feelings

15. Factual Information I (D)

Q. According to paragraph 1, what is the purpose of the Millennium Environmental Assessment?

Why? —See Clue 15(D)[lines 10-15]

► The aims of this research program are to provide people—both decision-making officials and the general public—with information about the likely future consequences of current human activity that affects the ecosystem.

16. Vocabulary I (C)

Q. The word fundamental in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? basic can replace fundamental in this context —See Clue 16(C)]lines 30-31]

•    fundamental adj. relating to the most basic and key parts of something

•    basic adj. forming the base or most necessary part of something

17. Inference I (A)

Q. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that focusing exclusively on the marketability of a natural resource is hazardous because

Why? (A) can be inferred from the information in lines 38-40. —See Clue 17(A)

Why Not? (B), (D) Not supported / (C) Incorrect —See lines 38-42

18. Rhetorical Purpose I (D)

Q. Why does the author mention Chicago in paragraph 3?

Why? Chicago is mentioned as an example of a region that forests provided with nonmarketable but economically valuable services. —See Clue 18(D)[lines 51-54]

19. Negative Fact I (A)

Q. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as nonmarketable services provided by the ecosystem EXCEPT

Why? -See Clue 19(A)[lines 38-41]

Why Not? (B) Mentioned in lines 25-26 / (C) Mentioned in lines 45-46 / (D) Mentioned in lines 52-54

20. Inference I (B)

Q. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that the MA believes the general public

Why? (B) can be inferred from the information in lines 55-60.    20{B)[lines    55-60]

Why Not? (A), 1C), (D) Not supported

21. Vocabulary I (A)

Q. The word epic in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? huge can replace epic in this context -*~See Clue 21(A)[lines 73-74, 75-76]

•    epic adj. surpassing the ordinary or usual, particularly in scope or size

•    huge adj. very large in size, amount, or degree

22. Sentence Simplification I (B)

Q. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.  

Why? The MA report makes it evident that humankind has arrived at a point in time // where the only way to lessen environmental problems is at an international level, // for resolving the planet’s ecological imbalance is an issue too great for single countries or individual people to tackle.

Why Not? (A) Not mentioned

(C)    Information that international cooperation is necessary is left out

(D)    Incorrect

23. Inference I (D)

Q. What can be inferred from paragraph 5 about the solution to the current pollution crisis?

Why? (D) can be inferred from the information in lines 77-82. ^See Clue 23(D)

Why Not? (A) Incorrect / (B) Not mentioned / (C) Incorrect ^See lines 77-82

24. Reference 1 (D)

Q. The word it in the passage refers to

Why? … action to protect the environment from decisions that would exploit it. ^See Clue 24(D)[lines 93-95]

25. Vocabulary I (D)

Q. The word obligation in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? responsibility can replace obligation in this context. **See Clue 25(D)[lines 104-107]

•    obligation n. moral or legal duty and expectation of doing something

•    responsibility n. duty to be in charge of something, so that you make decisions and are accountable

26. Insert Text I [B]

Q. Look at the four squares [|] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.

Why? [A] Environmental problems have reached such epic proportions that any countermeasure will need to be on the scale of an international environmental movement. [B] There are several components to this kind of environmental movement At the base of an effective environmental movement, there must be a change in individuals’ attitudes toward preserving the ecosystem. [C]

► ‘this kind of environmental movement’ in the given sentence refers to ‘an international environmental movement.’ And the decisive clue is the repetition of the phrase ‘environmental movement’ through the three successive sentences.

27. Prose Summary

Q. Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This ciuestion is worth 2 points.

Why? The research presented in the MA report demonstrates that it is essential to protect the planet’s ecology, even though the task will require major efforts.

Correct Answer Choices Clues in the passage
(B) Although some natural resources cannot be bought or sold, they nonetheless form critical parts of the Earth’s ecology. Clue 27(B)[lines 25-29] Although some of these assets—like erosion control and cultural heritage— are often underappreciated because they cannot be marketed for economic gain, they are nonetheless very valuable resources.
(C) Preserving the planet’s ecology has the potential to provide people with significant economic returns. Clue 27(C)[lines 65-68] ecologically preserved Canadian wetlands are worth nearly 6,000 US dollars per hectare, but only 2,500 dollars per hectare when intensively farmed
(D) An environmental movement can only succeed if it occurs at both global and individual levels. Clue 27(D)[lines 71-72] the only way to lessen environmental problems is at an international level [lines 80-82] there must be a change in individuals’ attitudes toward preserving the ecosystem

► The whole passage focuses on the value of our ecosystem and the importance of an environmental movement at the international level. And it follows that <(B) Value of natural resources — (C) Economic returns of preserving the planet’s ecology — (D) Necessity of the environmental movement on global and individual scales) **-See <Graphic Organize/> on p. 333

Why Not? (A) Mentioned in lines 8-10, but minor / (E), (F) Not mentioned

KEY FOR READING PASSAGE 3

28. (D) 29.(C) 30. (B) 31. (B) 32. (B)  33 (D) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36.(C) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (B), (E), (F)

28. Factual Information  (D)

Q. According to paragraph 1, why did some people expect to find life on Venus?

Why? – See Clue 28<D)[lines 4-9]

► … its size, shape, mass, and age are similar to those of our world.

Why Not? (A), (B) Incorrect **See lines 9-11HC) Not mentioned

29. Vocabulary I (C)

Q. The word dowse in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? create can replace devise in this context. **-See Clue 29(C)[lines 16-20]

•    devise v. to invent a plan to do something

•    create v. to invent or design

30. Vocabulary I (B)

Q. The word contour in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? outlines can replace contours in this context. «-See Clue 30(B)[lines 22-27]

•    contour n. shape of the outer edges of something

•    outline n. line around the edge of something revealing its shape

31. Rhetorical Purpose I (B)

Q. In paragraph 2, the author explains the concept of radar-mapping by

Why? After introducing radar technology, the author explains the concept of radar-mapping by giving an example of radar use in the 1940s and ’50s. See Clue 31(B)[lines 20-21]

32. Reference I (B)

Q. The word they in the passage refers to

Why? Most of these vehicles made use of the same radar technology to image the planet’s surface, but they had greater access through their maneuverability than the Earth-based telescopes as they circled the planet. ^See Clue 32(B)[lines 36-40]

33. Factual Information I (D)

Q. According to paragraph 3, the advantage orbiting spacecraft had over telescopes on Earth was that they

Why? ~ See Clue 33(D)]lines 38^40]

► … they had greater access through their maneuverability than the Earth-based telescopes as they circled

34. Sentence Simplification I (A)

Q. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

Why? Yet even though the surface of the planet Venus appears very different from that of the Earth, // in terms of structure the two are somewhat comparable, suggesting // that similar geological forces may have been responsible for shaping the outer shells of both worlds.

Why Not? (B), (D) Incorrect

(C) Information that the surfaces of Venus and Earth look different is left out.

35. Inference I (B)

Q. What can be inferred about Earth from the information in paragraph 5?

Why? (B) can be inferred from the information in lines 63-65. –See Clue 35(B)

36. Rhetorical Purpose I (C)

Q. Why does the author mention the Earth’s oceans in paragraph 6?

Why? The Earth’s oceans are mentioned in order to explain the difference between the surface of Venus and Earth by comparing them. *See Clue 36(C) [lines 79-61]

37. Vocabulary I (A)

Q. The word comprise in the passage is closest in meaning to

Why? include can replace comprise in this context. **See Clue 37(A)[lines 87-88]

•    comprise v. to form part of or be contained in larger group of people or things

•    include v. to make someone or something part of a bigger group or set

38. Inference I (D)

Q. According to paragraph 1. what can be inferred about upcoming missions to Venus?

Why? (D) can be inferred from the information in lines 95-98. »See Clue 38(D)

Why Not? (A)-(C) Not supported

39. Negative Fact I (A)

Q. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as methods used to observe Venus EXCEPT

Why Not? (B) Mentioned in lines 35-36 / (C) Mentioned in line 29 / (D) Mentioned in lines 41-48

40. Insert Text I [B]

Q. Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.

Why Not? [A] Needless to say, the possibility of life on Venus was ruled out by these scientific endeavors. [B] In fact, the planet is one of the least hospitable in the solar system. The thick clouds that hid the surface from astronomers for so long are composed of sulfuric acid, with only trace amounts of water vapor. [C]

41. Prose Summary

Q. Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.

Why? After years of research and the success of many high-tech projects, astronomers have finally been able to gather data about the surface of Venus.

Correct Answer Choices Clues in the passage
(B) Concrete information obtained about the harsh conditions on the surface of Venus makes it clear that there is no life on the planet. Clue 41(B)[lines 49-51] the possibility of life on Venus was ruled out by these scientific endeavors
(E) Though demonstrating many differences, the surfaces of Earth and Venus show signs of having experienced similar geologic phenomena. Clue 41(E)[lines 60-65] even though the surface of the planet Venus appears very different from that of the Earth, in terms of structure the two are somewhat comparable, suggesting that similar geological forces may have been responsible for shaping the outer shells of both worlds
(F) The vast plains and occasional mountainous uprisings of Venus’s surface resemble structural features that can also be observed on Earth. Clue 41(F)[lines 75-761 the majority of the planet is flat

[lines 78-80] Highlands account for only 5-10 percent of the surface area. This would be similar to the appearance of Earth’s surface

► The whole passage focuses on attempts to observe the surface of Venus and the results. And it follows that ((B) Harsh conditions on the surface of Venus —<» (E) Earth and Venus experience similar geologic phenomena — (F) The surface of Venus is similar to that of Earth’s) See <Graphic Organizer> on p. 339

Why Not? (A) Mentioned in lines 28-31, but minor / (C) Not mentioned / (D) Mentioned in lines 16-18, 51-53, but minor

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TOEFL IBT READING PRACTICE TEST 32 SOLUTION & EXPLANATION

Solution for toefl ibt reading practice test 32

Architecture

1.    [4] This is a Negative Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 1. The correct answer is choice 4. Sentence 3 in the paragraph states that “architecture affects our lives most directly/’ which makes the information in choice 4 incorrect. The information in choices 1 to 3 is stated in sentences 1 and 2 in the paragraph.

2.    [2] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is enhance. It is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 2, “improve.” In other words, humans seek structures that will improve, or better, their lives.

3.    [3] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is feasible. It is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 3, “achievable.” In other words, buildings contribute to human life when they are economically achievable, or possible.

4.    [4] This is a Sentence Simplification question. As with all of these questions, a single sentence in the passage is highlighted:

In order for the structure to achieve the size and strength necessary to meet its purpose, architecture employs methods of support that, because they are based on physical laws, have changed little since people first discovered them—even while building materials have changed dramatically.

The correct answer is choice 4. Choice 4 contains all of the essential information in the highlighted sentence. It omits the information from the introductory phrase about the size and strength of a structure because the information is not essential to the meaning of the sentence.

Choices 1, 2, and 3 are all incorrect because they change the meaning of the highlighted sentence. Choice 1 is incorrect because it inaccurately states that physical laws have limited the size and strength of buildings, whereas the highlighted sentence does not indicate this.

Choice 2 is incorrect because it wrongly makes a connection between building materials and building strength and size, whereas the highlighted sentence does not make such a connection.

Choice 3 is incorrect because it wrongly states that the structural methods initially used by people were not based on physical laws, whereas the highlighted sentence states that structural methods that are based on physical laws have been in use since their discovery.

5.    [2] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is devised. It is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 2, “created.” In other words, the world’s architectural structures have also been created, or made, in relation to the objective limitations of materials.

6.    [1] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is integral. It is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 1, “essential.” In other words, materials and methods of construction are essential, or vital, parts of the design of architectural structures.

7.    [2] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 4. The correct answer is choice 2. Sentence 3 in the paragraph indicates that in the past, structures were built using the available materials. However, sentence 4 in the paragraph indicates that today new materials can be created as needed depending on the design of the structure. Choice 1 is incorrect because sentence 5 in the paragraph indicates that there have been substantial changes in materials and designs in the recent past. Choice 3 is incorrect because sentence 4 in the paragraph indicates that there are many types of materials available today. Choice 4 is incorrect because sentence 5 in the paragraph indicates that it is possible to enclose space more quickly and easily than in the past. It does not indicate that architects were not able to enclose space.

8.    [3] This is an Inference question asking for an inference that can be supported by paragraph 4. The correct answer is choice 3. Sentence 5 in the paragraph states that structures are now created with a minimum of material, and sentence 6 indicates that there is a difference in weight between buildings being built now and those that were built one hundred years ago. The combined information from these two sentences suggests that modem buildings weigh less than buildings constructed one hundred years ago. Choice 1 is incorrect because there is no discussion of the amount of space that buildings constructed in the past or those built now occupy. Choice 2 is incorrect because sentence 5 in the paragraph states that substantial changes have been made to modem buildings compared with buildings constructed one hundred years ago. Choice 4 is incorrect because sentence 5 in the paragraph indicates that modem buildings can be built more quickly than those built one hundred years ago.

9.    [4] This is an Inference question asking for an inference that can be supported by paragraph 5. The correct answer is choice 4. The reader is required to connect the information in sentences 1 and 3 in the paragraph. Sentence 1 indicates that modern architecture has several components comparable to the human body, whereas sentence 3 indicates that early architecture had few such components. The information in these two sentences suggests that modem buildings more closely resemble the human body than earlier buildings do. Choice 1 is incorrect because sentence 1 in the paragraph indicates that there are three components of modern architecture (skeleton, skin, equipment) that resemble the human body, not just one. Choice 2 is incorrect because sentence 3 in the paragraph states that early architecture did not have interior equipment, which is one of the three particular elements discussed in the paragraph as being comparable to the human body. Choice 3 is incorrect because there is no discussion or implication of how modern buildings or the human body may change.

10. [1] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is arduous. It is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 1, “difficult.” In other words, cutting and piling stone upon stone was a difficult, or demanding, task.

11. [3] This is a Rhetorical Purpose question. It is asking why the author includes the description of how the “doorways and windows” of Machu Picchu were constructed. The phrase being tested is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 3. The author discusses the stone structures used to support doorways and windows in order to provide an example of how the physical limitations of stone were overcome before the invention of the arch. Choice 1 is incorrect because there is no comparison made in the passage between the buildings of Machu Picchu and igloos and adobe structures. Choice 2 is incorrect because, while the passage does state that stone was used in the buildings of Machu Picchu, it never discusses the kind of stone used. Choice 4 is incorrect because there is no discussion of the time needed to construct buildings from stone.

12.    [2] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 6. The correct answer is choice 2. Sentences 5 and 6 in the paragraph indicate that the arch allowed new architectural forms to be created. The remainder of the paragraph elaborates on structures created as a result of the arch. Choice 1 is incorrect because sentence 7 in the paragraph indicates that early Mediterranean cultures were the first to use the arch, not the Romans. Choice 3 is incorrect because sentence 10 in the paragraph indicates that the weight of a structure is distributed to the sides of the arch. Choice 4 is incorrect because sentence 7 indicates that the Romans created new uses for the arch, namely in aboveground structures.

13.    [4] This is an Insert Text question. You can see the four black squares in paragraph 5 that represent the possible answer choices here.

■ Modern architectural forms generally have three separate components comparable to elements of the human body: a supporting skeleton or frame, an outer skin enclosing the interior spaces, and equipment, similar to the body’s vital organs and systems. ■ The equipment includes plumbing, electrical wiring, hot water, and air-conditioning. ■ Of course in early architecture—such as igloos and adobe structures—there was no such equipment, and the skeleton and skin were often one. ■

The sentence provided, “However, some modem architectural designs, such as those using folded plates of concrete or air-inflated structures, are again unifying skeleton and skin,” is best inserted at square 4.

Square 4 is correct because it is the only place that supports both a contrasting idea and a repeated reference to the unification of skeleton and skin. The inserted sentence represents a contrast to the main idea of the paragraph. The inserted sentence also contains the phrase “again unifying skeleton and skin,” indicating that there must be a previous discussion related to unifying the skeleton and skin of a structure. Square 4 is the only place in this paragraph that follows such a discussion.

None of the other answer choices follows a discussion of the unifying of a structure’s skeleton and skin, nor do the other answer choices provide a suitable point of contrast for the insert sentence.

14. [1] [3] [6] This is a Prose Summary question. It is completed correctly below. The correct choices are 1, 3, and 6. Choices 2, 4, and 5 are therefore incorrect.

Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some answer choices do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.

Architecture uses forms and space to express cultural values.

•    Architects seek to create buildings that are both visually appealing and well suited for human use.

•    Over the course of the history of building, innovations in materials and methods of construction have given architects ever greater freedom to express themselves.

•    The discovery and use of the arch typifies the way in which architecture advances by developing more efficient types of structures.

Answer Choices

1.    Architects seek to create buildings that are both visually appealing and well suited for human use.

2.    Both clients and architects are responsible for the mediocre designs of some modern buildings.

3.    Over the course of the history of building, innovations in materials and methods of construction have given architects ever greater freedom to express themselves.

4. Modern buildings tend to lack the beauty of ancient stone buildings such as those of Machu Picchu.

5. Throughout history buildings have been constructed like human bodies, needing distinct “organ” systems in order to function.

6. The discovery and use of the arch typifies the way in which architecture advances by developing more efficient types of structures.

Correct Choices

Choice 1, “Architects seek to create buildings that are both visually appealing and well suited for human use,” is correct because it is a broad statement that is developed in the first two paragraphs. The first two paragraphs discuss in detail how architecture can affect and possibly improve people s lives.

Choice 3, “Over the course of the history of building, innovations in materials and methods of construction have given architects ever greater freedom to express themselves,” is correct because it is a general statement that is developed in paragraphs 3 and 4. These paragraphs discuss in detail how materials and methods have changed and improved over the history of building, continually providing architects the chance to create new designs.

Choice 6, “The discovery and use of the arch typifies the way in which architecture advances by developing more efficient types of structures,” is correct because it captures the main idea of paragraph 6, which provides a lengthy discussion of the ways that the arch has allowed new architectural forms to be created.

Incorrect Choices

Choice 2, “Both clients and architects are responsible for the mediocre designs of some modern buildings,” is incorrect because it is only a minor, supporting detail, which is mentioned in the last sentence of paragraph 2. It supports the larger idea in the paragraph that the quality of an architectural design depends on a variety of factors.

Choice 4, “Modem buildings tend to lack the beauty of ancient stone buildings such as those of Machu Picchu,” is incorrect because there is no discussion in the passage of the level of attractiveness of modem buildings.

Choice 5, “Throughout history buildings have been constructed like human bodies, needing distinct ‘organ’ systems in order to function,” is incorrect because paragraph 5 states that early architecture did not have equipment, such as plumbing and wiring, that is comparable to vital organs in the human body.

The Long-term Stability of Ecosystems

l. [3] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is particular. It is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 3, “specific.” In other words, the specific structure of plant communities depends on the history of the area.

2. [3] This is a Negative Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 1. The correct answer is choice 3. The last sentence of the paragraph indicates that the plants and species of climax communities change. Choice 1 is true according to the information in sentence 3 in the paragraph, which states that the community that follows succession is a climax community. Choice 2 is true according to sentences 4 to 6 in the paragraph, which indicate that pioneer and succession communities last as long as 500 years, while climax communities last more than 500 years. Choice 4 is true according to the last sentence of the paragraph, which indicates that climax communities exist for periods longer than 500 years.

3.    [1] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 2. The correct answer is choice 1. Sentence 3 in the paragraph states that “the properties of an ecosystem are more stable,” or change more slowly, than individuals within the system. Choice 2 is contradicted by sentences 1 and 3 in the paragraph, which indicate that ecosystems remain unchanged as individuals are replaced. Choice 3 is contradicted by sentence 2 in the paragraph, which indicates that individual organisms change from year to year. Choice 4 is incorrect because there is no information in the paragraph about a change in the number of an organism and how that will affect an ecosystem. Furthermore, sentence 2 in the paragraph states that the number of fish, for example, will usually slay the same.

4.    [2] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 3. The correct answer is choice 2. Sentence 3 in the paragraph indicates that climax communities have more stable ecosystems than pioneer communities. Choice 1 is incorrect because sentence 3 in the paragraph states that pioneer communities are less stable than climax communities. Choice 3 is incorrect because sentence 5 in the paragraph indicates that single-crop farmlands are unstable. Choice 4 is incorrect because successional plant communities are not discussed in the paragraph.

5.    [3] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 4. The correct answer is choice 3. The first two sentences of the paragraph indicate that ecosystem stability is complicated because ecologists do not agree on the meaning of the word stability. Choice 1 is incorrect because it is not discussed in the paragraph. Furthermore, the idea stated in choice 1 is contradicted in sentence 5 of the paragraph, which states that disturbances such as fires can change an ecosystem. Choice 2 is incorrect because there is no discussion of confusion on the part of ecologists about the concept of resilience. Resilience is simply defined in the paragraph. Choice 4 is incorrect because the main idea of the paragraph is to show that the questions of different ecologists are the cause of complications. Furthermore, sentences 4 and 7 in the paragraph provide clear answers to the questions posed by ecologists.

6.    [2] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information provided in paragraph 4. The correct answer is choice 2. Sentences 4 and 7 in the paragraph indicate different perspectives on climax communities: they can be viewed as the most or least stable communities. Choice 1 is incorrect because, according to the resilience theory of ecosystem stability, it is contra dieted by sentence 7, which indicates that climax communities are the least resilient. Choice 3 is also contradicted by sentence 7, which indicates that climax communities take a long time to recover after a major disturbance. Choice 4 is incorrect because it is a misunderstanding of the concept of resilience. According to sentence 5 in the paragraph, a resilient community will revert back to a particular form after a major disturbance.

7.    [3] This is an Inference question asking for an inference that can be supported by paragraph 5. The correct answer is choice 3. Sentence 2 introduces the discussion of diversity in successional communities in temperate zones, and sentence 3 presents redwood forests as an example of such a community. Choice 1 is incorrect because we can infer the opposite, according to the paragraph. Sentence 3 indicates that the diversity in a redwood forest decreases as the forest matures, and sentence 5 indicates that increased diversity can lead to instability. Choice 2 is incorrect because sentences 2 and 3 indicate that the number of species declines in a redwood forest at the climax stage. Choice 4 is incorrect because sentences 2 and 3 indicate the opposite, namely that redwood forests have maximum diversity in successional stages.

8.    [2] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is guarantee. It is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 2, “ensure.” In other words, diversity docs not ensure ecosystem stability.

9.    [1] This is a Rhetorical Purpose question. It is testing why the author provides the information that “A fifteen-speed racing bicycle is more likely to break down than a child’s tricycle.” The sentence being tested is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 1. Sentence 6 in the paragraph asserts the general principle that a complicated system is more likely to break down than a simple one. Sentence 7, the highlighted sentence, provides an example about bicycles that the average reader can relate to. Choice 2 is incorrect because it emphasizes stability, whereas the highlighted information provides an example of the issues related to the complexity of a particular system. Choice 3 is incorrect because sentence 5 in the paragraph indicates the opposite, specifically that stability does not necessarily increase with diversity. Therefore the highlighted sentence cannot be compared to the incorrect information given in Choice 3. Choice 4 is incorrect because the example provided in the highlighted sentence actually supports the mathematical models mentioned in sentence 5.

10.    [3] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is pales. It is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 3, “loses significance.” In other words, the destruction caused by the explosion of Mount St. Helens loses significance when compared with the destruction caused by humans.

11. [4] This is a Sentence Simplification question. As with all of these questions, a single sentence in the passage is highlighted:

Many ecologists now think that the relative long-term stability of climax communities comes not from diversity but from the “patchiness” of the environment; an environment that varies from place to place supports more kinds of organisms than an environment that is uniform.

The correct answer is choice 4. That choice takes all of the essential information in the two clauses of the highlighted sentence and simplifies it into one concise sentence. It omits information from the second clause that is repetitive and therefore not essential to the meaning.

Choice 1 is incorrect because its meaning is the opposite of that of the highlighted sentence. Choice 1 states that diversity is the key to stability, whereas the highlighted sentence indicates that stability does not come from diversity but rather comes from patchiness.

Choice 2 incorrectly indicates a causal relationship between patchy environments and diversity.

Choice 3 is incorrect because there is no indication in the highlighted sentence that uniform environments cannot be climax communities.

12.    [4] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is adjacent. It is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 4, “neighboring.” In other words, a local population that goes extinct is quickly replaced by organisms from a neighboring, or nearby, community.

13.    [2] This is an Insert Text question. You can see the four black squares that represent the answer choices here.

■ Ecologists are especially interested in knowing what factors contribute to the resilience of communities because climax conditions all over the world are being severely damaged or destroyed by human activities. ■ The destruction caused by the volcanic explosion of Mount St. Helens, in the northwestern United States, for example, pales in comparison to the destruction caused by humans. ■ We need to know what aspects of a community are most important to the community’s resistance to destruction, as well as its recovery. ■

The sentence provided, “In fact, damage to the environment by humans is often much more severe than by natural events and processes,” is best inserted at square 2.

Square 2 is correct because it is the best place in the paragraph to elaborate on the idea, introduced in sentence 1, that humans contribute to damage done to the environment. The phrase “In fact” is used to indicate elaboration. Also, the phrase “natural events and processes” in the given sentence provides a logical connection to the example in sentence 2 about the volcanic explosion of Mount St. Helens.

Square 1 is incorrect because it does not make sense to begin the paragraph with a sentence that elaborates on the idea of human damage to the environment before the idea has been introduced.

Square 3 is incorrect because it does not make sense to follow the specific example about the damage caused by the explosion of Mount St. Helens in sentence 2 with a more general statement about damage done by “natural events and processes.”

Square 4 is incorrect because the sentence preceding this square discusses a community’s resistance to destruction. This square is not a logical place to insert a sentence that specifically elaborates on a different idea.

14. [3] [4] [5] This is a Prose Summary question. It is completed correctly below. The correct choices are 3, 4, and 5. Choices 1, 2, and 6 are therefore incorrect.

Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some answer choices do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.

The process of succession and the stability of a climax community can change over time.

•    A high degree of species diversity does not always result in a stable ecosystem.

•    Disagreements over the meaning of the term “stability” make it difficult to identify the most stable ecosystems.

•    The level of resilience in a plant community contributes to its longterm stability.

Answer Choices

1.    The changes that occur in an ecosystem from the pioneer to the climax community can be seen in one human generation.

2.    Ecologists agree that climax communities are the most stable types of ecosystems.

3.    A high degree of species diversity does not always result in a stable ecosystem.

4.    Disagreements over the meaning of the term “stability” make it difficult to identify the most stable ecosystems.

5.    The level of resilience in a plant community contributes to its long-term stability.

6.    The resilience of climax communities makes them resistant to destruction caused by humans.

 

Correct Choices

Choice 3, “A high degree of species diversity does not always result in a stable ecosystem,” is correct because it is a main idea that is developed throughout most of the passage. The first three paragraphs introduce and develop the idea that diversity may result in a stable ecosystem. But paragraphs 4, 5, and 7 introduce arguments to support the idea that diversity does not always result in a stable ecosystem.

Choice 4, “Disagreements over the meaning of the term “stability” make it difficult to identify the most stable ecosystems,” is correct because the key idea that ecosystem stability is difficult to quantify is introduced in paragraph 4 and developed throughout the rest of the passage.

Choice 5, “The level of resilience in a plant community contributes to its longterm stability,” is correct because it mentions one important form of stability that is introduced in paragraph 4 and further developed in paragraph 6 in the discussion of environmental damage caused by humans.

incorrect Choices

Choice 1, “The changes that occur in an ecosystem from the pioneer to the climax community can be seen in one human generation,” is incorrect because paragraph 1 states that a pioneer community alone can change over a period as long as 500 years. Furthermore, a climax community typically changes over a period longer than 500 years.

Choice 2, “Ecologists agree that climax communities arc the most stable types of ecosystems,” is incorrect because climax communities are described as unstable at several points in the passage, beginning in paragraph 3. The last sentence of paragraph 4 states that climax communities could be the least stable communities, while sentence 2 in paragraph 5 suggests that succes-sional communities may be more stable than climax communities.

Choice 6, “The resilience of climax communities makes them resistant to destruction caused by humans,” is incorrect because it is a misreading of sentence 1 in paragraph 6. The sentence indicates that ecologists would like to know if resilience could make climax communities resistant to destruction. Climax communities are currently being damaged or destroyed by humans and are not therefore resistant to such destruction.

Depletion of the Ogallala Aquifer

1.    [4] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 1. The correct answer is choice 4. Sentence 2 in the paragraph indicates that there was “low-intensity” farming and ranching in the High Plains region for a short period after it was settled in the 1880s. Choice 1 is incorrect because there is no information in the paragraph that indicates the High Plains had no inhabitants before the 1880s. The paragraph only indicates that the region had not been permanently settled by a particular group—farmers and ranchers. Choice 2 is incorrect because there is no mention of temperatures in the paragraph. The paragraph states that the region had a semiarid climate, but that alone does not give an indication of the temperature. Choice 3 is incorrect because the paragraph does not state who actually discovered the aquifer. The paragraph only indicates that the aquifer is named after the Ogallala Indians because they once lived in the region.

2.    [2] This is a Negative Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 2. The correct answer is choice 2. The information in choice 2 is incorrect according to the paragraph, which states that the water comes “from rains and melting snows.” There is no mention of underground springs in the paragraph. The information in choice 1 about location is stated in sentence 1 of the paragraph. The information in choice 3 about time is stated in sentence 2 of the paragraph. The information in choice 4 about sandstone is stated in sentence 1 of the paragraph.

3.    [1] This is a Sentence Simplification question. As with all of these questions, a single sentence in the passage is highlighted:

Estimates indicate that the aquifer contains enough water to fill Lake Huron, but unfortunately, under the semiarid climatic conditions that presently exist in the region, rates of addition to the aquifer are minimal, amounting to about half a centimeter a year.

The correct answer is choice 1. The essential information about the size of the aquifer and the rate of addition is expressed in simplified, concise language, but the extra details used to help the reader visualize the information have been removed.

Choice 2 incorrectly indicates that the aquifer does not currently have the large amount of water that could fill Lake Huron, whereas the highlighted sentence states that the aquifer does have this large amount of water.

Choice 3 incorrectly implies that the regions present climatic conditions positively affect the aquifer by adding water. However, the highlighted sentence

states that the regions dry weather negatively affects the aquifer because it prevents substantial amounts of water from being added.

Choice 4 incorrectly states that the rates of addition of water are increasing; the highlighted sentence indicates that the rate is steady at half a centimeter a year.

4.    [4] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is ensuing. The word is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 4, “subsequent.” In other words, the subsequent rapid expansion of irrigation culture transformed the economy of the region.

5.    [3] This is a Rhetorical Purpose question. It is testing why the author provides the information that 40 percent of American cattle are fattened in the High Plains. The correct answer is choice 3. Sentence 2 of the paragraph provides the general statement that irrigation agriculture “transformed the economy of the region,” and the remainder of the paragraph provides 3 examples of this transformation. The information about cattle is the last of these examples in the paragraph. Choice 1 incorrectly implies that crop cultivation was less important than other factors in the economy of the region. However, the paragraph only provides examples of factors that contributed to the transformation of the region’s economy; it does not indicate whether one factor was more or less important than another. Choice 2 incorrectly indicates that economic activity was not dependent on irrigation. However, sentence 2 in the paragraph states explicitly that the economic transformation was a result of irrigation agriculture. Choice 4 is incorrect because there is no comparison in the paragraph between cattle-fattening practices in the High Plains and those in other places. The last sentence in the paragraph states only that 40 percent of certain cattle arc fattened in this region; there is no discussion of the practices themselves.

6.    [3] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is unprecedented. The word is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 3, “unlike anything in the past.” In other words, a finite groundwater resource with a low natural recharge rate is unlike anything that existed in the past.

7.    [4] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is virtually. The word is highlighted in the passage. The correct answer is choice 4, “almost.” In other words, there is almost no natural water source to replenish the water supply in the aquifer.

8.    [1] This is a Negative Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 4. The correct answer is choice 1. Sentence 1 in the paragraph indicates that the aquifer has a low recharge rate, but there is no indication that this recharge rate is a result of irrigation. Furthermore, sentence 1 implies that the recharge rate is steady, not decreasing. The information in choice 2 about water tables is provided in sentence 1 in the paragraph. The information in choice 3 about the depth of wells is provided in sentence 2 in the paragraph. The information in choice 4 about water pumps is provided in sentence 3 in the paragraph.

9.    [3] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 4. The correct answer is choice 3. Sentences 4 and 5 in the paragraph indicate that much of the aquifer will dry out and specify “The situation is most critical in Texas.” Choice 1 is incorrect because there is no indication in the paragraph as to which area has the greatest amount of farmland being irrigated. Choice 2 is incorrect because there is no indication in the paragraph as to which area has the largest amount of Ogallala water beneath its soil. Choice 4 incorrectly states that Texas uses the least amount of Ogallala water, whereas sentence 5 states that in Texas “the greatest amount of water is being pumped.”

10.    [3] This is a Vocabulary question. The word being tested is inevitable. The word is highlighted in the paragraph. The correct answer is choice 3, “unavoidable.” In other words, the reaction of farmers to the unavoidable depletion of the Ogallala varies.

11. [2] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 5. The correct answer is choice 2. Sentence 4 in the paragraph indicates that some farmers are less motivated to conserve water because other farmers make money by using large amounts of water. Choice 1 is incorrect because it attributes some farmers’ difficulties to the difficulty of growing certain crops. However, sentence 2 in the paragraph states only that some farmers have switched to crops that use less water; this is not presented as a difficulty. Choice 3 incorrectly states that irrigating less frequently leads to crop failure, whereas sentence 2 in the paragraph mentions less frequent irrigation only as a method of conserving water. Choice 4 incorrectly implies that there are many farmers who do not believe that the aquifer will run dry. However, the paragraph does not explicitly state what farmers believe or do not believe. Only the reactions of farmers to the depletion of the aquifer are discussed. We can infer from these reactions that many farmers do believe the aquifer will run dry.

12.    [2] This is a Factual Information question asking for specific information that can be found in paragraph 6. The correct answer is choice 2. Sentence 2    in the paragraph states that the cost of agricultural products irrigated with transported river water would become too high and therefore uncompetitive. Choice 1 is incorrect because it states that there is not sufficient river water to meet farmers’ needs, but sentence 1 in the paragraph implies that there are “vast quantities” of river water that could be used for irrigation purposes. Choice 3 is incorrect because the paragraph does not indicate that the cost of using capillary water will increase, but instead, sentence 4 in the paragraph indicates that using capillary water will cause the cost of water to increase. Choice 4 incorrectly states that farmers will be forced to switch to genetically engineered crops; the paragraph indicates that there are multiple possible solutions to the water supply crisis that farmers may choose from.

13. [3] This is an Insert Text question. You can see the four black squares that represent the answer choices here.

The reaction of farmers to the inevitable depletion of the Ogallala varies. Many have been attempting to conserve water by irrigating less frequently or by switching to crops that require less water. ■ Others, however, have adopted the philosophy that it is best to use the water while it is still economically profitable to do so and to concentrate on high-value crops such as cotton. ■ The incentive of the farmers who wish to conserve water is reduced by their knowledge that many of their neighbors are profiting by using great amounts of water, and in the process are drawing down the entire region’s water supplies. ■

In the face of the upcoming water supply crisis, a number of grandiose schemes have been developed to transport vast quantities of water by canal or pipeline from the Mississippi, the Missouri, or the Arkansas rivers. ■ Unfortunately, the cost of water obtained through any of these schemes would increase pumping costs at least tenfold, making the cost of irrigated agricultural products from the region uncompetitive on the national and international markets.

The sentence provided, “But even if uncooperative farmers were to join in the conservation efforts, this would only delay the depletion of the aquifer,” is best inserted at square 3. The preceding sentence refers to farmers who use great amounts of water, or uncooperative farmers, and the following sentence at the beginning of the next paragraph refers to the water supply crisis, or the depletion of the aquifer. Square 3 is the only place that provides logical connections to both the preceding and following sentences.

Square 1 is incorrect because the preceding sentence refers to cooperative farmers who have attempted to conserve water, and the following sentence already provides a contrast to these cooperative farmers with the words “Olliers, however.” Therefore the sentence provided would be repetitive.

Square 2 is incorrect because the following sentence continues to discuss farmers, whereas the sentence provided leads the reader to expect a further discussion of the depiction of the aquifer.

Square 4 is incorrect because the topic of the preceding and following sentences is potential solutions to the water crisis. There is no connection to be made with the actions of uncooperative farmers.

14. [1] [3] [6] This is a Prose Summary question. It is completed correctly below. The correct choices are 1, 3, and 6. Choices 2, 4, and 5 are therefore incorrect.

Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some answer choices do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.

The Ogaliala aquifer is a large underground source of water in the High Plains region of the United States.

•    The use of the Ogaliala for irrigation has allowed the High Plains to become one of the most productive agricultural regions in the United States.

•    Given the aquifer’s low recharge rate, its use for irrigation is causing water tables to drop and will eventually lead to its depletion.

•    Several solutions to the upcoming water supply crisis have been proposed, but none of them promises to keep the costs of irrigation low.

Answer Choices

1.    The use of the Ogaliala for irrigation has allowed the High Plains to become one of the most productive agricultural regions in the United States.

2.    The periodic deepening of wells and the use of more-powerful pumps would help increase the natural recharge rate of the Ogaliala.

3.    Given the aquifer’s low recharge rate, its use for irrigation is causing water tables to drop and will eventually lead to its depletion.

4.    In Texas, a great deal of attention is being paid to genetic engineering because it is there that the most critical situation exists.

5.    Releasing capillary water and introducing drought-resistant crops are less promising solutions to the water supply crisis than bringing in river water.

6.    Several solutions to the upcoming water supply crisis have been proposed, but none of them promises to keep the costs of irrigation low.

Correct Choices

Choice 1, “The use of the Ogallala for irrigation has allowed the High Plains to become one of the most productive agricultural regions in the United States,” is correct because it is the main idea of paragraph 3. This choice summarizes the background information needed to understand the later discussion of the depletion of the aquifer.

Choice 3, “Given the aquifer’s low recharge rate, its use for irrigation is causing water tables to drop and will eventually lead to its depletion,’’ is correct because it is a main idea that is developed throughout paragraphs 3 to 5. The information in this choice concisely captures the cause of the aquifers depletion.

Choice 6, “Several solutions to the upcoming water supply crisis have been proposed, but none of them promises to keep the costs of irrigation low,” is correct because this is the main idea of the final paragraph of the passage. The information in this choice concisely captures the likely results of the aquifer’s depletion.

Incorrect Choices

Choice 2, “The periodic deepening of wells and the use of more-powerful pumps would help increase the natural recharge rate of the Ogallala,” is incorrect because it is a misreading of the information given in paragraph 4 about wells and pumps. Paragraph 4 states different information, which is that the low recharge rate of the aquifer has resulted in the need to deepen wells and use more-powerful pumps.

Choice 4, “In Texas, a great deal of attention is being paid to genetic engineering because it is there that the most critical situation exists,” is incorrect because paragraph 6 states that genetic engineering is being considered as one of several solutions to the water supply crisis, but it is never stated who, exactly, is considering this solution. Furthermore, while it is true according to paragraph 4 that Texas has the most critical situation, there is no mention in the passage of what solutions Texas, in particular, is considering.

Choice 5, “Releasing capillary water and introducing drought-resistant crops are less promising solutions to the water supply crisis than bringing in river water,” is incorrect because the passage never indicates that one of these solutions is more or less promising than the others. The passage indicates in the last sentence only that all potential solutions will lead to more expensive irrigation water.

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